Nursing Elites

1. A full-term, 24-hour-old infant in the nursery regurgitates and suddenly turns cyanotic. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Suction the oral and nasal passages.
• B. Give oxygen by positive pressure.
• C. Stimulate the infant to cry.
• D. Turn the infant onto the right side.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a situation where an infant regurgitates and turns cyanotic, the priority action should be to clear any potential airway obstruction. Suctioning the oral and nasal passages is crucial to ensure the infant's airway is clear and allow for proper breathing. This intervention takes precedence over providing oxygen, stimulating the infant to cry, or repositioning the infant.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate to a laboring client whose blood pressure has increased from 110/60 mmHg to 140/90 mmHg. Which action is the highest priority?

• A. Provide a quiet environment with subdued lighting.
• B. Have calcium gluconate immediately available.
• C. Assess deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) every 4 hours.
• D. Insert a Foley catheter with a urimeter to monitor hourly output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Having calcium gluconate readily available is crucial when administering magnesium sulfate, as it serves as the antidote in case of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate can lead to respiratory depression and cardiac arrest in cases of overdose or toxicity, making the prompt availability of calcium gluconate essential for immediate administration to counteract these effects. Providing a quiet environment with subdued lighting may be beneficial for the client's comfort but is not the highest priority in this situation. Assessing deep tendon reflexes every 4 hours is important when administering magnesium sulfate, but it is not the highest priority compared to having calcium gluconate available. Inserting a Foley catheter with a urimeter to monitor hourly output is not the highest priority when preparing to administer magnesium sulfate in this scenario.

3. What is the most important assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct before the administration of epidural anesthesia to a client at 40 weeks' gestation?

• A. Maternal blood pressure.
• B. Level of pain sensation.
• C. Station of presenting part.
• D. Variability of fetal heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing maternal blood pressure is crucial before administering epidural anesthesia because it can cause hypotension, affecting both the mother and the fetus. Hypotension can lead to decreased placental perfusion, potentially compromising the fetal oxygen supply. Monitoring and maintaining maternal blood pressure within a safe range are essential to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the fetus during the administration of epidural anesthesia. The other options, such as assessing the level of pain sensation, station of presenting part, and variability of fetal heart rate, are important in obstetric care but are not as critical as monitoring maternal blood pressure to prevent complications related to epidural anesthesia administration.

4. What is the most important assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct following the administration of epidural anesthesia to a client who is at 40-weeks gestation?

• A. Maternal blood pressure.
• B. Level of pain sensation
• C. Station of presenting part.
• D. Variability of fetal heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Following the administration of epidural anesthesia, the most crucial assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct is monitoring maternal blood pressure. Epidural anesthesia can lead to hypotension as a common side effect, which can have significant implications for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, close monitoring of maternal blood pressure is essential to detect and manage any hypotensive episodes promptly. Choices B, C, and D are important assessments during labor and delivery, but in this specific scenario of post-epidural anesthesia, monitoring maternal blood pressure takes precedence due to the potential risk of hypotension.

5. A two-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit
• B. Administer the scheduled dose
• C. Calculate the safe dose range
• D. Review the serum digoxin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the scheduled dose of digoxin. A heart rate of 128 bpm in a two-year-old child with heart failure falls within the safe range for digoxin administration. It indicates that the child's heart rate is not excessively low, which could be a concern for administering digoxin. Therefore, proceeding with the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. Determining the pulse deficit (Choice A) is not necessary in this situation as the heart rate is already obtained. Calculating the safe dose range (Choice C) is not required as the heart rate is within the safe range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level (Choice D) is not needed at this point since the heart rate indicates that administering the next dose is appropriate.

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