Nursing Elites

1. During an admission assessment and interview, which channels of information communication should the healthcare professional be monitoring? Select all that apply.

• A. Auditory
• B. Visual
• C. Written
• D. Tactile

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an admission assessment and interview, healthcare professionals should monitor auditory, visual, and non-verbal cues. Auditory communication involves listening to the patient's spoken words, tone of voice, and any other sounds they make. Visual communication includes observing the patient's facial expressions, body language, and gestures. Written communication, such as forms or notes, may also provide valuable information. Tactile communication pertains to touch, which is not typically utilized during an admission interview setting. While all channels of communication are important, in this context, auditory cues are particularly crucial for gathering verbal information during the assessment process, making choice A the correct answer. Visual cues and written information are also significant but may not be as critical as auditory cues during an interview. Tactile communication is generally not a primary channel used during a standard admission assessment and interview, hence it is not a key focus in this scenario.

2. A female client is brought to the emergency department after police officers found her disoriented, disorganized, and confused. The RN also determines that the client is homeless and is exhibiting suspiciousness. The client’s plan of care should include what priority problem?

• A. Acute confusion.
• B. Ineffective community coping.
• C. Disturbed sensory perception.
• D. Self-care deficit.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acute confusion is the priority problem because it directly impacts the client's safety and functioning. In this scenario, the client is disoriented, disorganized, and confused, which can pose immediate risks to her well-being. Ineffective community coping, disturbed sensory perception, and self-care deficit are not as urgent in this situation. Ineffective community coping focuses on the client's ability to manage stress related to the community, disturbed sensory perception pertains to alterations in sensory input, and self-care deficit involves the inability to perform activities of daily living independently. While these issues may also need addressing, acute confusion takes precedence due to the immediate safety concerns it presents.

3. A female client, who is wearing dirty clothes and has a foul body odor, comes to the clinic reporting feeling scared because she is being stalked. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Offer the client a safe place to relax before interviewing her.
• B. Ask the client to describe why she is being stalked.
• C. Recommend that the client talk with a social worker.
• D. Assure the client that the healthcare provider will see her today.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client presents with signs of distress and potential safety concerns, the priority is to provide a safe environment. Offering a safe place to relax can help the client feel secure and ready for further assessment and support. This action allows the nurse to establish rapport, ensure the client's immediate safety, and create a trusting relationship before delving into the details of the situation. Asking the client to describe why she is being stalked (Choice B) may exacerbate her distress and should come after ensuring her safety. Recommending that the client talk with a social worker (Choice C) is important but should follow immediate safety measures. Assuring the client that the healthcare provider will see her today (Choice D) is less critical than addressing her safety concerns and emotional state.

4. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is receiving a new prescription for fluoxetine (Prozac). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this medication?

• A. “I should begin feeling less anxious within a few weeks.”
• B. “The drug will help me control my compulsive behaviors.”
• C. “I will need to have a weekly blood test to check my liver function.”
• D. “I should avoid foods that contain tyramine while taking this medication.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fluoxetine, an SSRI, can help manage symptoms of OCD by assisting in controlling compulsive behaviors rather than directly reducing anxiety. The improvement in symptoms usually occurs over a few weeks. Choice A is incorrect as it provides a timeframe for anxiety improvement, which is not the primary goal of fluoxetine in OCD treatment. Choice C is incorrect as routine blood tests are not typically required with fluoxetine. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding tyramine-containing foods is more relevant for MAOIs, not SSRIs like fluoxetine.

5. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed lithium carbonate. Which finding should the RN report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Serum lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 16 mg/dL
• C. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• D. Urine output of 800 mL in 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Elevated BUN levels may indicate renal impairment, which is crucial to report for clients on lithium due to its potential kidney effects. Option A, a serum lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L, is within the therapeutic range for lithium and does not require immediate reporting. Option C, a serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L, is within the normal range and not directly related to lithium therapy. Option D, urine output of 800 mL in 24 hours, may indicate a need for further assessment but is not the most critical finding to report compared to potential renal impairment indicated by an elevated BUN level.

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