Nursing Elites

1. During an admission assessment and interview, which channels of information communication should the healthcare professional be monitoring? Select all that apply.

• A. Auditory
• B. Visual
• C. Written
• D. Tactile

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an admission assessment and interview, healthcare professionals should monitor auditory, visual, and non-verbal cues. Auditory communication involves listening to the patient's spoken words, tone of voice, and any other sounds they make. Visual communication includes observing the patient's facial expressions, body language, and gestures. Written communication, such as forms or notes, may also provide valuable information. Tactile communication pertains to touch, which is not typically utilized during an admission interview setting. While all channels of communication are important, in this context, auditory cues are particularly crucial for gathering verbal information during the assessment process, making choice A the correct answer. Visual cues and written information are also significant but may not be as critical as auditory cues during an interview. Tactile communication is generally not a primary channel used during a standard admission assessment and interview, hence it is not a key focus in this scenario.

2. Which statement made by a patient prescribed bupropion (Wellbutrin) demonstrates that the medication education the patient received was effective? Select all that apply.

• A. I hope Wellbutrin will help my depression and also help me to finally quit smoking.
• B. I'm happy to hear that I won't need to worry too much about weight gain.
• C. It's okay to take Wellbutrin since I haven't had a seizure in 6 months.
• D. I need to be careful about driving since the medication could make me drowsy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer. The patient expressing a desire for Wellbutrin to address both depression and smoking cessation indicates an understanding of the medication's dual benefits. This demonstrates effective medication education as the patient comprehends the drug's purposes. Choice B is incorrect because weight gain is a common side effect of bupropion, so the statement contradicts this fact. Choice C is incorrect as a history of seizures is a contraindication for bupropion, so this statement shows a misunderstanding of the medication's safety profile. Choice D is incorrect because bupropion is not typically associated with sedation, so the concern about drowsiness is not directly related to this medication.

3. Which factors tend to increase the difficulty of diagnosing young children who demonstrate behaviors associated with mental illness? Select all that apply.

• A. Limited language skills
• B. Level of cognitive development
• C. Level of emotional development
• D. Parental denial that a problem exists

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Level of cognitive development. The level of cognitive development is a crucial factor that can complicate the diagnosis of mental illness in young children. Young children may not have fully developed cognitive abilities to express their symptoms or understand diagnostic procedures, making it challenging for healthcare providers to assess their mental health accurately. Limited language skills (choice A) can hinder communication but are not as significant as cognitive development in diagnosing mental illness. Emotional development (choice C) is important but may not be as directly linked to the diagnostic challenges as cognitive development. Parental denial (choice D), although a potential barrier, is not a factor inherent to the child's characteristics affecting the diagnostic process.

4. During the admission assessment of an underweight adolescent with depression on a psychiatric unit, the nurse finds a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dl. Which finding requires notification to the healthcare provider?

• A. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dl.
• B. BP of 110/70 mmHg.
• C. WBC of 10,000 mm³.
• D. Body mass index of 21.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dl is critically low, indicating hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Prompt notification to the healthcare provider is essential for immediate intervention. Choice B, a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, is within the normal range. Choice C, a white blood cell count of 10,000 mm³, is also within normal limits and is not a concerning finding in this context. Choice D, a body mass index of 21, may indicate being underweight but is not as urgent as addressing the critically low potassium level.

5. A client with Bulimia and depression who is taking phenelzine (Nardil) 90 mg daily is admitted to an acute care hospital for uncontrolled hypertension. What dietary choices should the RN instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Pan-seared catfish.
• B. Pepperoni pizza.
• C. Deep-fried shrimp.
• D. Beef strips with gravy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is taking MAO inhibitors like phenelzine, foods containing tyramine should be avoided. Tyramine-rich foods can interact with MAO inhibitors and lead to a hypertensive crisis. Beef strips with gravy contain tyramine, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C do not contain high levels of tyramine and are not specifically contraindicated with MAO inhibitors.

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