Nursing Elites

1. During a well-child visit for their child, one of the parents with an autosomal dominant disorder tells the nurse, 'We don’t plan on having any more children, since the next child is likely to inherit this disorder.' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Explain that the risk of inheriting the disorder decreases by 50% with each child the couple has.
• B. Acknowledge that the next child will inherit the disorder since the first child did not.
• C. Encourage the couple to reconsider their decision since the inheritance pattern may be sex-linked.
• D. Confirm that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confirming that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder is the correct response in this situation. Autosomal dominant disorders have a 50% chance of being passed on to each child. Providing accurate genetic counseling is essential to help the parents make informed decisions about family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the risk of inheriting an autosomal dominant disorder remains at 50% for each child regardless of the number of children the couple has. Choice B is not appropriate as it does not provide helpful information or support to the parents. Choice C is misleading because autosomal dominant disorders follow a specific inheritance pattern and are not sex-linked.

2. A 4-week-old premature infant has been receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) for the last three weeks. Which assessment finding indicates to the healthcare provider that the drug is effective?

• A. Slowly increasing urinary output over the last week.
• B. Respiratory rate changes from the 40s to the 60s.
• C. Changes in apical heart rate from the 180s to the 140s.
• D. Change in indirect bilirubin from 12 mg/dl to 8 mg/dl.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis, leading to an increase in red blood cell production and improving oxygen-carrying capacity. As the oxygenation status improves, there is a reduction in heart rate. Therefore, changes in apical heart rate from the 180s to the 140s indicate that the drug is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly reflect the expected outcome of epoetin alfa therapy. Increasing urinary output, changes in respiratory rate, and decreasing bilirubin levels are not primary indicators of the drug's effectiveness in this context.

3. The client is 24 weeks gestation and reports increased thirst and urination. Which diagnostic test result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Hemoglobin A1C.
• B. Postprandial blood glucose test.
• C. Oral glucose tolerance test.
• D. Fasting blood glucose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An abnormal oral glucose tolerance test result is indicative of gestational diabetes. This test is crucial in diagnosing gestational diabetes as it evaluates how well the body processes glucose after a sugary drink. Reporting abnormal results promptly allows for timely intervention and management to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. The other options are not the primary tests used to diagnose gestational diabetes. Hemoglobin A1C is not recommended for diagnosing gestational diabetes as it reflects long-term glucose control. Postprandial blood glucose and fasting blood glucose tests are not as sensitive as the oral glucose tolerance test for diagnosing gestational diabetes.

4. The client delivered hours ago and has a boggy uterus displaced above and to the right of the umbilicus. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Inspect the perineal pad.
• B. Encourage voiding.
• C. Monitor vital signs.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A boggy uterus that is displaced above and to the right of the umbilicus may indicate a full bladder, which can impede uterine contraction and lead to hemorrhage. Encouraging the client to void helps relieve pressure on the uterus, promoting better contraction and preventing postpartum hemorrhage.

5. During a routine prenatal health assessment for a client in her third trimester, the client reports that she had fluid leakage on her way to the appointment. Which technique should the nurse implement to evaluate the leakage?

• A. Insert a straight urinary catheter to drain the bladder.
• B. Scan the bladder for urinary retention.
• C. Palpate the suprapubic area for fetal head position.
• D. Test the fluid with a nitrazine strip.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Testing the fluid with a nitrazine strip is the appropriate technique to differentiate between amniotic fluid and urine. This test helps in determining if the fluid leakage is amniotic fluid, which is crucial for guiding further management and ensuring appropriate care for the client during the third trimester of pregnancy. Inserting a straight urinary catheter to drain the bladder (Choice A) is unnecessary and invasive in this scenario as the concern is fluid leakage, not urinary retention. Scanning the bladder for urinary retention (Choice B) is also not indicated since the client reported fluid leakage, not retention. Palpating the suprapubic area for fetal head position (Choice C) is unrelated to assessing fluid leakage and not the appropriate technique in this situation.

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