Nursing Elites

1. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the charge nurse that a client who delivered a 7-pound infant 12 hours ago is reporting a severe headache. The client’s blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate is 18 breaths/min, heart rate is 74 beats/min, and temperature is 98.6°F (37°C). What action should the charge nurse implement first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the assessment findings.
• B. Administer analgesics as prescribed.
• C. Increase the client’s fluid intake.
• D. Monitor the client’s vital signs every hour.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A severe headache post-delivery could indicate a serious condition such as preeclampsia or a spinal headache, which requires immediate medical attention. Notifying the healthcare provider of the assessment findings allows for prompt evaluation and appropriate management of the client's condition.

2. Twenty-four hours after admission to the newborn nursery, a full-term male infant develops localized edema on the right side of his head. The LPN/LVN knows that, in the newborn, an accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull which does not cross the suture line is a newborn variation known as

• A. a cephalhematoma, caused by birth trauma and may last up to 8 weeks.
• B. a subarachnoid hematoma, which requires immediate drainage to prevent further complications.
• C. molding, caused by pressure during labor and will disappear within 2 to 3 days.
• D. a subdural hematoma, which can result in lifelong damage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cephalhematoma is the accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull, often due to birth trauma, and typically resolves within weeks. It is a common finding in newborns and is not usually a cause for concern as it gradually resolves without specific treatment. Subarachnoid hematoma and subdural hematoma are different conditions that present with distinct characteristics and require different management strategies. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Subarachnoid hematoma is typically found in the subarachnoid space and requires immediate intervention, not just observation like cephalhematoma. Molding refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal and is a temporary change, not a collection of blood like in cephalhematoma. Subdural hematoma is located beneath the dura mater and is associated with significant complications, unlike the self-limiting nature of cephalhematoma.

3. The nurse is planning care for a 4-year-old girl diagnosed with a developmental disability. What should be the primary focus of treatment for this child?

• A. Teach her social skills.
• B. Assist in preventing further disability.
• C. Ensure her participation in group activities.
• D. Help her achieve her maximum potential.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary focus of treatment for a child diagnosed with a developmental disability should be helping them achieve their maximum potential. This approach aims to optimize the child's physical, emotional, cognitive, and social abilities, focusing on enhancing their overall well-being and quality of life. By supporting the child in reaching their highest level of functioning, caregivers can promote independence, self-esteem, and personal growth, which are essential components of holistic care for individuals with developmental disabilities. Teaching social skills (choice A) is important but is just one aspect of the comprehensive care needed. Preventing further disability (choice B) may not always be entirely achievable, but maximizing potential is a more realistic goal. Ensuring participation in group activities (choice C) is valuable for social development, but the primary focus should be on overall potential and well-being.

4. A client at 32 weeks gestation is hospitalized with severe pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and magnesium sulfate is prescribed to control the symptoms. Which assessment finding indicates the therapeutic drug level has been achieved?

• A. 4+ reflexes
• B. Urinary output of 50 ml per hour
• C. A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16
• D. A decreased body temperature

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16 indicates that magnesium sulfate is effectively reducing central nervous system irritability, a desired therapeutic effect. This decrease in respiratory rate signifies that the drug has reached a therapeutic level to control symptoms of severe pregnancy-induced hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because 4+ reflexes, urinary output, and body temperature are not direct indicators of achieving a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate for controlling PIH symptoms.

5. A pregnant client receives Rho(D) immune globulin after an amniocentesis. The day following, she reports a temperature of 99.8°F (37.67°C). Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Schedule a visit with the healthcare provider today.
• B. Verify the compatibility of the administered Rho(D) immune globulin.
• C. Encourage the client to increase her intake of oral fluids.
• D. Instruct the client to maintain bedrest for 24 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A mild increase in temperature post-amniocentesis is common, and encouraging the client to increase oral fluid intake is the appropriate action. Increasing fluid intake can help reduce mild fever, promote recovery, and prevent dehydration. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on the importance of staying hydrated to support her overall well-being during this time.

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