a client with a history of seizures is admitted with status epilepticus which medication should the nurse prepare to administer
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Community Health HESI Quizlet

1. A client with a history of seizures is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam (Ativan) is preferred over Diazepam (Valium) due to its longer duration of action and lower risk of respiratory depression. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and Carbamazepine (Tegretol) are not the first-line agents for the acute treatment of status epilepticus, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

2. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chest pain radiating to the left arm is a classic symptom of a myocardial infarction (heart attack) in individuals with coronary artery disease. This finding indicates that the heart muscle may not be receiving adequate oxygen, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage or complications. The other assessment findings (heart rate of 90 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg) are within normal limits and do not suggest an acute, life-threatening condition like myocardial infarction.

3. A client is suspected of being poisoned and presents with symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth. The nurse should consider these findings consistent with which potential bioterrorism agent?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: botulism toxin. The symptoms described, including symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth, are classic manifestations of botulism, which is caused by a toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum. This toxin affects the nervous system, leading to muscle weakness and paralysis. Choice A, ricin, typically presents with gastrointestinal symptoms and organ failure. Choice C, sulfur mustard, causes blistering skin and respiratory issues. Choice D, yersinia pestis, is associated with the plague and presents with fever, chills, weakness, and swollen lymph nodes.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected myocardial infarction. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical sign that can indicate heart failure or pulmonary edema, conditions that require immediate intervention in a client with a suspected myocardial infarction. Chest pain radiating to the left arm is a classic symptom of a myocardial infarction but may not necessitate immediate intervention compared to severe shortness of breath. Nausea and vomiting can be present in myocardial infarction but are not as urgent as shortness of breath. Diaphoresis, or sweating, is a common symptom of a myocardial infarction but may not be as immediately concerning as significant shortness of breath.

5. The healthcare provider is planning a health education session for new parents on infant care. Which topic should be prioritized?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Recognizing signs of infant dehydration is crucial for ensuring the health and well-being of infants. Dehydration can be life-threatening for infants if not addressed promptly. Proper diaper changing techniques, while important for hygiene, can be learned incrementally. The immunization schedule and breastfeeding positions are also essential topics, but identifying signs of dehydration takes precedence as it requires immediate attention to prevent serious complications.

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