Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperthyroidism. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
• B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
• C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
• D. Weight loss of 5 pounds in one week.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Weight loss of 5 pounds in one week in a client with hyperthyroidism is concerning as it may indicate severe hypermetabolism, leading to potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness, and other metabolic disturbances. Rapid weight loss in hyperthyroidism indicates an accelerated metabolic rate and increased energy expenditure, which can be detrimental to the client's health. The other assessment findings (heart rate of 100 beats per minute, blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute) are commonly seen in clients with hyperthyroidism and may not necessarily require immediate intervention unless they are significantly outside the normal range or causing distress to the client.

2. A male client who had abdominal surgery has a nasogastric tube for suction, oxygen via nasal cannula, and complains of dry mouth. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Apply a petroleum-based lubricant to the lips.
• B. Give sips of water.
• C. Provide ice chips.
• D. Apply a water-soluble lubricant to the lips, oral mucosa, and nares.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to apply a water-soluble lubricant to the lips, oral mucosa, and nares. This helps in keeping the mucous membranes moist, which is essential for a client with a dry mouth due to the nasogastric tube and oxygen therapy. Choice A, applying a petroleum-based lubricant to the lips, is not suitable as it may not be safe for internal use. Choice B, giving sips of water, is contraindicated as the client has a nasogastric tube in place for suction. Choice C, providing ice chips, is also not recommended as the client needs proper lubrication to address dryness, not cold stimulation.

3. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
• B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
• C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

4. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chest pain radiating to the left arm is a classic symptom of a myocardial infarction (heart attack) in individuals with coronary artery disease. This finding indicates that the heart muscle may not be receiving adequate oxygen, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage or complications. The other assessment findings (heart rate of 90 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg) are within normal limits and do not suggest an acute, life-threatening condition like myocardial infarction.

5. The client is unable to void, and the plan of care sets an objective for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm. Which client response should the nurse document to indicate a successful outcome?

• A. Drinks adequate fluids.
• B. Void without difficulty.
• C. Feels less thirsty.
• D. Drinks 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Drinking 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift indicates a fluid intake of 1200 mL, which exceeds the minimum objective of at least 1000 mL. The client meeting or exceeding the fluid intake goal is a clear indicator of a successful outcome. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because simply drinking adequate fluids, voiding without difficulty, or feeling less thirsty do not directly demonstrate meeting the specific objective of fluid intake set in the care plan.

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