HESI RN TEST BANK

HESI Community Health

The healthcare professional is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?

    A. Wear the brace over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day.

    B. Remove the brace while sleeping.

    C. Wear the brace directly against the skin.

    D. Remove the brace while eating.

Correct Answer:
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Milwaukee brace should be worn over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day to reduce friction and chafing of the skin. This ensures that the brace is not directly against the skin, which can cause discomfort and skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect because the brace should typically be worn continuously, even while sleeping, unless otherwise instructed by a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as wearing the brace directly against the skin can lead to skin issues. Choice D is incorrect since the brace should not be removed while eating to maintain the prescribed wear time.

In conducting a health assessment for a family with a history of cardiovascular disease, which family member should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention?

  • A. a 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol
  • B. a 17-year-old daughter who is overweight and inactive
  • C. a 50-year-old mother with a history of hypertension
  • D. a 12-year-old son who has a normal weight and is active

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol is at a higher risk for cardiovascular disease due to multiple risk factors. Smoking and high cholesterol are significant contributors to the development of cardiovascular issues. Prioritizing his evaluation and intervention is crucial to address these modifiable risk factors. The other family members, though they may have risk factors as well, do not present with the same level of immediate risk based on the information provided.

The client with liver cirrhosis needs immediate intervention for which abnormal laboratory result?

  • A. Prothrombin time (PT) of 14 seconds.
  • B. Bilirubin of 1.2 mg/dL.
  • C. Albumin of 4 g/dL.
  • D. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL.

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL indicates hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis that requires immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that accumulates in the blood due to impaired liver function, leading to cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Monitoring and lowering ammonia levels are crucial in managing hepatic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological deterioration. Prothrombin time, bilirubin, and albumin levels are important parameters in assessing liver function and overall health status in clients with liver cirrhosis, but an elevated ammonia level poses an immediate threat to neurological function and warrants prompt attention.

The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning effectively?

  • A. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
  • B. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
  • C. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber.
  • D. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is the correct observation indicating effective functioning of the chest tube. This bubbling signifies that the suction system is working correctly and maintaining the desired negative pressure in the pleural space. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber suggests an air leak, which is not a normal finding. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber may indicate a blockage or lack of communication between the pleural space and the water-seal, which is not ideal. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube is a normal finding, but it does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of the chest tube function.

The healthcare provider is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

  • A. Serum calcium of 11 mg/dL.
  • B. Serum phosphorus of 3 mg/dL.
  • C. Serum magnesium of 1.8 mg/dL.
  • D. Serum albumin of 4 g/dL.

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A serum calcium level of 11 mg/dL indicates hypercalcemia, which can be a complication of hyperparathyroidism and requires immediate intervention. Hypercalcemia can lead to serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias, renal failure, and neurologic symptoms. Monitoring and managing serum calcium levels are crucial in clients with hyperparathyroidism. Serum phosphorus, magnesium, and albumin levels are important to assess in clients with hyperparathyroidism, but they do not require immediate intervention as hypercalcemia poses a more urgent risk.

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