Nursing Elites

1. Discuss the anatomical/physiological changes in pregnancy under the following: Uterus

• A. The uterus softens in the anterior midline, becomes flexible at the uterocervical junction, blood vasculature increases in size and number, and hypertrophy of myometrial cells occurs.
• B. The uterus decreases in size during pregnancy and remains rigid.
• C. The uterus size remains unchanged, and no changes occur in the blood vasculature.
• D. Uterus becomes more rigid and hypertrophies.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During pregnancy, the uterus undergoes various anatomical and physiological changes. The correct answer, Choice A, accurately describes these changes. The uterus softens in the anterior midline, becomes flexible at the uterocervical junction, experiences an increase in blood vasculature size and number, and myometrial cells hypertrophy. This softening and increased vascularity are essential for accommodating the growing fetus and facilitating delivery. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the typical changes that occur in the uterus during pregnancy. The uterus does not decrease in size, remain unchanged in size, become more rigid, or hypertrophy without the described softening and vascular changes.

2. Which of the following is incorrect about oral contraceptive pill 'Saheli'?

• A. It is taken by females
• B. It has very few side effects
• C. It is a steroidal preparation
• D. It is 'Once a week' pill

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Saheli' is not a steroidal preparation, it is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive.

3. At what point is a fetus considered viable?

• A. 26 weeks
• B. 28 weeks
• C. 37 weeks
• D. 12 weeks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A fetus is considered viable after 37 weeks of gestation. At this stage, the fetus has a higher chance of surviving outside the womb with medical support. Choice A (26 weeks), Choice B (28 weeks), and Choice D (12 weeks) are incorrect because a fetus is not typically considered viable at those earlier gestational ages.

4. Which of the following hormone ratios is MOST likely to be increased in a patient with PCOS?

• A. Progesterone/estrogen
• B. LH/FSH
• C. FSH/LH
• D. Glucagon/insulin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), the LH/FSH ratio is most likely to be increased. This hormonal imbalance is a key characteristic of PCOS, where elevated LH levels relative to FSH contribute to the pathophysiology of the condition. Choice A, progesterone/estrogen ratio, is not typically a defining feature of PCOS. Choice C, FSH/LH ratio, is the reverse of what is commonly observed in PCOS. Choice D, glucagon/insulin ratio, is not directly related to the hormonal imbalances seen in PCOS.

5. Which of the following tests is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease?

• A. Cervical excitation test
• B. Chadwick sign
• C. Jacquiners sign
• D. Palmers sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cervical excitation test. The cervical excitation test is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease. This test involves pain or tenderness upon movement of the cervix, indicating inflammation of the pelvic organs. Chadwick sign (choice B) refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia due to increased vascularity and is not a test for PID. Jacquiners sign (choice C) and Palmers sign (choice D) are not recognized clinical signs or tests for PID, making them incorrect choices.

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