HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam Questions And Answers
1. Discuss the anatomical/physiological changes in pregnancy under the following: Uterus
- A. The uterus softens in the anterior midline, becomes flexible at the uterocervical junction, blood vasculature increases in size and number, and hypertrophy of myometrial cells occurs.
- B. The uterus decreases in size during pregnancy and remains rigid.
- C. The uterus size remains unchanged, and no changes occur in the blood vasculature.
- D. Uterus becomes more rigid and hypertrophies.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During pregnancy, the uterus undergoes various anatomical and physiological changes. The correct answer, Choice A, accurately describes these changes. The uterus softens in the anterior midline, becomes flexible at the uterocervical junction, experiences an increase in blood vasculature size and number, and myometrial cells hypertrophy. This softening and increased vascularity are essential for accommodating the growing fetus and facilitating delivery. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the typical changes that occur in the uterus during pregnancy. The uterus does not decrease in size, remain unchanged in size, become more rigid, or hypertrophy without the described softening and vascular changes.
2. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops chills and back pain. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Monitor the client's vital signs every 15 minutes.
- C. Administer a PRN dose of diphenhydramine.
- D. Prepare to administer an antihistamine.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse is to stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider. These symptoms suggest a transfusion reaction, and stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Notifying the healthcare provider ensures timely intervention and appropriate management for the client's condition. Monitoring vital signs, administering diphenhydramine, or preparing to administer an antihistamine can be considered after stopping the transfusion and seeking guidance from the healthcare provider. However, the immediate priority is to halt the transfusion and inform the provider.
3. A community health nurse is applying for a federal grant to support a smoking cessation educational program. In which order should the nurse prioritize these nursing activities? Arrange in order top to bottom.
- A. Determine the target aggregate that will be served by the program
- B. Consider pros and cons of different methods of data gathering
- C. Select and train the data collection personnel
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D' - All of the above. The nurse should first determine the target aggregate that will be served by the program to understand the specific population in need. Subsequently, they should consider the pros and cons of different methods of data gathering to ensure the most appropriate data collection strategies are employed. Finally, selecting and training the data collection personnel is essential for the successful implementation of the program. These steps provide a logical progression from identifying the target group to analyzing the collected data. Choices A, B, and C are all crucial steps that must be taken in sequence to effectively develop and implement the smoking cessation educational program.
4. A client with a spinal cord injury is admitted to the ICU. Which nursing intervention is most important to include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Monitor for signs of autonomic dysreflexia.
- B. Implement measures to prevent pressure ulcers.
- C. Perform passive range of motion exercises.
- D. Ensure that the client is turned every two hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening condition that can occur in clients with spinal cord injuries, especially those with injuries above the T6 level. It is characterized by a sudden onset of excessively high blood pressure, pounding headache, profuse sweating, and flushing above the level of injury. Failure to recognize and treat autonomic dysreflexia promptly can lead to seizures, stroke, or even death. Therefore, monitoring for signs of autonomic dysreflexia is crucial in clients with spinal cord injuries. Choices B, C, and D are important interventions too, but in the context of a spinal cord injury, monitoring for autonomic dysreflexia takes priority due to its potentially life-threatening nature.
5. Which client is at greatest risk for coronary artery disease?
- A. A 32-year-old female with mitral valve prolapse who quit smoking 10 years ago.
- B. A 43-year-old male with a family history of CAD and a cholesterol level of 158 (8.8 mmol/L).
- C. A 56-year-old male with an HDL of 60 (3.3 mmol/L) who takes atorvastatin.
- D. A 65-year-old female who is obese with an LDL of 188 (10.4 mmol/L).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The 65-year-old female who is obese with a high LDL level of 188 (10.4 mmol/L) is at the greatest risk for coronary artery disease. Obesity and high LDL cholesterol levels are significant risk factors for developing coronary artery disease. While factors like mitral valve prolapse (choice A) and a family history of CAD (choice B) can contribute to the risk, they are not as significant as obesity and high LDL levels. Choice C, a 56-year-old male with high HDL and taking atorvastatin, is actually at lower risk due to the high HDL levels and being on statin therapy, which helps reduce cholesterol levels and lower the risk of coronary artery disease.