Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is experiencing moral distress due to an ethical dilemma. Which of the following best describes the healthcare professional’s response to this situation?

• A. The healthcare professional is experiencing moral distress because the ethical dilemma is causing a conflict between the healthcare professional’s personal values and professional responsibilities.
• B. The healthcare professional is experiencing moral distress because the ethical dilemma is causing a conflict between the healthcare professional’s obligations to the patient and the healthcare team.
• C. The healthcare professional is experiencing moral distress because the ethical dilemma is causing a conflict between the healthcare professional’s personal beliefs and the expectations of the healthcare organization.
• D. The healthcare professional is experiencing moral distress because the ethical dilemma is causing a conflict between the healthcare professional’s professional judgment and the wishes of the patient’s family.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Moral distress occurs when a healthcare professional experiences a conflict between personal values and professional responsibilities, leading to emotional and ethical challenges. Choice B is incorrect because moral distress is primarily related to personal values and professional responsibilities, not just obligations to the patient and healthcare team. Choice C is incorrect because moral distress is more about personal values and professional responsibilities, rather than organizational expectations. Choice D is incorrect because moral distress is focused on personal values and professional responsibilities, not just conflicts with the wishes of the patient’s family.

2. A client with type 2 DM is being treated with metformin (Glucophage). The nurse should include which instruction when teaching the client about this medication?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Take the medication before bedtime.
• D. Avoid taking the medication if you miss a meal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking metformin (Glucophage) is to take the medication with meals. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects and improves absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking metformin on an empty stomach can increase the risk of side effects. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to take metformin before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as missing a meal should not lead to avoiding the medication, but the client should take it with the next meal as prescribed.

3. Why is it important to control blood glucose levels in type 2 DM?

• A. Hypertension and kidney disease.
• B. Weight gain and obesity.
• C. Improved wound healing.
• D. Decreased cholesterol levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Controlling blood glucose levels in type 2 DM is crucial to prevent complications. High blood glucose levels can lead to hypertension and kidney disease, as seen in diabetic nephropathy and diabetic nephropathy. These are common complications of uncontrolled diabetes. Weight gain and obesity (choice B) are influenced by factors such as diet and physical activity rather than blood glucose levels. Improved wound healing (choice C) is not directly related to blood glucose control but can be affected by it indirectly. Decreased cholesterol levels (choice D) are not a direct consequence of high blood glucose levels and are more related to dietary and lifestyle factors.

4. The client has been diagnosed with primary aldosteronism. Which of the following clinical findings would the nurse expect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Primary aldosteronism involves the overproduction of aldosterone by the adrenal glands. Aldosterone increases potassium excretion, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, in primary aldosteronism, the nurse would expect to find hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia (choice A), hyponatremia (choice C), or hypercalcemia (choice D).

5. A client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is at risk for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention in the body. This causes dilutional hyponatremia, where the sodium levels in the blood become abnormally low. Option A, Hypernatremia, is incorrect because SIADH does not cause elevated sodium levels. Option C, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as SIADH does not directly affect potassium levels. Option D, Hypercalcemia, is also incorrect as SIADH does not impact calcium levels.

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