HESI RN
Leadership and Management HESI
1. A healthcare professional is experiencing moral distress due to an ethical dilemma. Which of the following best describes the healthcare professional’s response to this situation?
- A. The healthcare professional is experiencing moral distress because the ethical dilemma is causing a conflict between the healthcare professional’s personal values and professional responsibilities.
- B. The healthcare professional is experiencing moral distress because the ethical dilemma is causing a conflict between the healthcare professional’s obligations to the patient and the healthcare team.
- C. The healthcare professional is experiencing moral distress because the ethical dilemma is causing a conflict between the healthcare professional’s personal beliefs and the expectations of the healthcare organization.
- D. The healthcare professional is experiencing moral distress because the ethical dilemma is causing a conflict between the healthcare professional’s professional judgment and the wishes of the patient’s family.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Moral distress occurs when a healthcare professional experiences a conflict between personal values and professional responsibilities, leading to emotional and ethical challenges. Choice B is incorrect because moral distress is primarily related to personal values and professional responsibilities, not just obligations to the patient and healthcare team. Choice C is incorrect because moral distress is more about personal values and professional responsibilities, rather than organizational expectations. Choice D is incorrect because moral distress is focused on personal values and professional responsibilities, not just conflicts with the wishes of the patient’s family.
2. During an admission assessment and interview, which channels of information communication should the healthcare professional be monitoring? Select all that apply.
- A. Auditory
- B. Visual
- C. Written
- D. Tactile
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During an admission assessment and interview, healthcare professionals should monitor auditory, visual, and non-verbal cues. Auditory communication involves listening to the patient's spoken words, tone of voice, and any other sounds they make. Visual communication includes observing the patient's facial expressions, body language, and gestures. Written communication, such as forms or notes, may also provide valuable information. Tactile communication pertains to touch, which is not typically utilized during an admission interview setting. While all channels of communication are important, in this context, auditory cues are particularly crucial for gathering verbal information during the assessment process, making choice A the correct answer. Visual cues and written information are also significant but may not be as critical as auditory cues during an interview. Tactile communication is generally not a primary channel used during a standard admission assessment and interview, hence it is not a key focus in this scenario.
3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which clinical finding is most concerning?
- A. Headache
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
- C. Elevated liver enzymes
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. In a client with atrial fibrillation taking warfarin (Coumadin), a headache can be indicative of bleeding, which is a serious complication requiring immediate assessment and intervention. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial when on anticoagulant therapy. Choices B, C, and D are not the most concerning. A prothrombin time of 15 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, elevated liver enzymes may indicate liver dysfunction but are not directly related to the medication's side effects, and peripheral edema is not typically associated with warfarin use or atrial fibrillation in this context.
4. Which one of the following is not a stage in the ovarian cycle of the menstrual cycle?
- A. Recruitment of Graafian follicle
- B. Selection of dominant follicle
- C. Luteal phase
- D. Formation of corpus luteum
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The recruitment of the Graafian follicle is indeed a stage in the ovarian cycle. During the ovarian cycle, the primary follicles are recruited to develop further, leading to the formation of the Graafian follicle. The selection of the dominant follicle, luteal phase, and formation of the corpus luteum are other essential stages in the ovarian cycle. Therefore, option A is not correct as it is a crucial phase in the process of ovulation and fertilization.
5. A 17-year-old unmarried, pregnant client with drug addiction is a high school dropout, homeless, and has a history of past abuse arrives at the clinic for her first prenatal visit. Which findings should the nurse document as health risk factors for the client? (Select all that apply)
- A. age
- B. school dropout
- C. drug addiction
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: All these factors - age, school dropout, drug addiction - are significant health risk factors for the client. Being young, a high school dropout, and struggling with drug addiction can lead to various complications during pregnancy, such as poor prenatal outcomes and social challenges. These factors can impact the client's overall health and well-being, highlighting the importance of addressing them during prenatal care.