Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is experiencing moral distress due to an ethical dilemma. Which of the following best describes the healthcare professional’s response to this situation?

• A. The healthcare professional is experiencing moral distress because the ethical dilemma is causing a conflict between the healthcare professional’s personal values and professional responsibilities.
• B. The healthcare professional is experiencing moral distress because the ethical dilemma is causing a conflict between the healthcare professional’s obligations to the patient and the healthcare team.
• C. The healthcare professional is experiencing moral distress because the ethical dilemma is causing a conflict between the healthcare professional’s personal beliefs and the expectations of the healthcare organization.
• D. The healthcare professional is experiencing moral distress because the ethical dilemma is causing a conflict between the healthcare professional’s professional judgment and the wishes of the patient’s family.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Moral distress occurs when a healthcare professional experiences a conflict between personal values and professional responsibilities, leading to emotional and ethical challenges. Choice B is incorrect because moral distress is primarily related to personal values and professional responsibilities, not just obligations to the patient and healthcare team. Choice C is incorrect because moral distress is more about personal values and professional responsibilities, rather than organizational expectations. Choice D is incorrect because moral distress is focused on personal values and professional responsibilities, not just conflicts with the wishes of the patient’s family.

2. A nurse manager conducts evaluations with each staff member and reviews the staffing needs for the upcoming year. Which of the following best describes the behavior this manager is engaging in?

• A. Interpersonal activities
• B. Decisional activities
• C. Informational activities
• D. Transformational activities

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decisional activities. A nurse manager conducting evaluations and reviewing staffing needs for the future involves making decisions related to resource allocation, planning, and problem-solving. These activities fall under the category of decisional activities in management. Choice A, Interpersonal activities, would involve activities like communicating, motivating, and leading staff. Choice C, Informational activities, would involve activities like gathering and disseminating information. Choice D, Transformational activities, would involve inspiring and motivating staff to achieve organizational goals through vision and change.

3. Which of the following is an interpersonal activity of nurse managers, but not necessarily all nurse leaders?

• A. Coaching
• B. Resource allocation
• C. Planning for the future
• D. Monitoring

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Coaching. Nurse managers are directly involved in coaching their team members, providing guidance, support, and mentorship. This is a key interpersonal activity that focuses on developing the skills and performance of individual team members. While nurse leaders may also engage in coaching activities, it is a more specific and hands-on role for nurse managers. Choice B, resource allocation, is a managerial function that involves distributing resources effectively and efficiently. Choice C, planning for the future, is a strategic activity that involves setting goals and directions for the organization. Choice D, monitoring, is a supervisory task that involves overseeing and evaluating processes and outcomes. These activities are important for nurse leaders as well as nurse managers, but coaching is a more direct interpersonal interaction typically associated with nurse managers.

4. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

5. In a 29-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing's syndrome, nurse Lyzette would expect a decline in:

• A. Serum glucose level.
• B. Hair loss.
• C. Bone mineralization.
• D. Menstrual flow.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production which can lead to hyperglycemia. Successful treatment of Cushing's syndrome aims to normalize cortisol levels, resulting in a decline in serum glucose levels. Choice B, hair loss, is not specifically associated with Cushing's syndrome or its treatment. Choice C, bone mineralization, is often compromised in Cushing's syndrome due to the effects of excess cortisol on bones; however, successful treatment would aim to improve bone health rather than decline it. Choice D, menstrual flow, is not directly linked to Cushing's syndrome or its treatment, so a decline in menstrual flow would not be an expected outcome of successful treatment.

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