Nursing Elites

1. A nurse caring for a client with hypocalcemia would expect to note which of the following changes on the electrocardiogram?

• A. Widened T wave
• B. Prominent U wave
• C. Prolonged QT interval
• D. Shortened ST segment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In hypocalcemia, a decreased level of calcium can lead to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG due to its role in myocardial repolarization. A widened T wave (Choice A) is typically seen in hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave (Choice B) is associated with hypokalemia. A shortened ST segment (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypocalcemia.

2. Clinical manifestations associated with a diagnosis of type 1 DM include all of the following except:

• A. Hypoglycemia.
• B. Hyponatremia.
• C. Ketonuria.
• D. Polyphagia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clinical manifestations of type 1 diabetes mellitus include hypoglycemia, ketonuria, and polyphagia. Hyponatremia is not typically associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus; it is more commonly linked with other conditions such as syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) or heart failure. Therefore, the correct answer is B: Hyponatremia.

3. Nurse Louie is developing a teaching plan for a male client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. The nurse should include information about which hormone lacking in clients with diabetes insipidus?

• A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
• B. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
• C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
• D. Luteinizing hormone (LH)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diabetes insipidus is a condition characterized by a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH plays a crucial role in regulating water balance by controlling the amount of water reabsorbed by the kidneys. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not associated with diabetes insipidus. TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) is responsible for regulating thyroid function, while FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone) are involved in reproductive functions.

4. What clinical feature distinguishes a hypoglycemic reaction from a ketoacidosis reaction?

• A. Blurred vision.
• B. Diaphoresis.
• C. Nausea.
• D. Weakness.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diaphoresis is the correct answer because it is more characteristic of hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia typically presents with symptoms such as diaphoresis (excessive sweating), palpitations, tremors, and anxiety. On the other hand, ketoacidosis is associated with symptoms such as fruity breath, deep and labored breathing (Kussmaul respirations), nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Blurred vision can occur in both hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis due to metabolic disturbances affecting the eyes. Weakness is a nonspecific symptom that can be present in both conditions, making it less helpful in distinguishing between the two.

5. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

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