Nursing Elites

1. A nurse caring for a client with hypocalcemia would expect to note which of the following changes on the electrocardiogram?

• A. Widened T wave
• B. Prominent U wave
• C. Prolonged QT interval
• D. Shortened ST segment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In hypocalcemia, a decreased level of calcium can lead to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG due to its role in myocardial repolarization. A widened T wave (Choice A) is typically seen in hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave (Choice B) is associated with hypokalemia. A shortened ST segment (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypocalcemia.

2. The client with hyperparathyroidism is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following foods should the client avoid?

• A. Bananas
• B. Spinach
• C. Milk
• D. Processed meats

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with hyperparathyroidism should avoid high-calcium foods like milk because they already have elevated calcium levels. Bananas and spinach are not high in calcium and can be included in the diet. Processed meats are not specifically contraindicated in hyperparathyroidism, so they are not the correct answer.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with pheochromocytoma. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider implement?

• A. Administer beta-blockers to control blood pressure
• B. Encourage a high-sodium diet
• C. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia
• D. Restrict fluid intake to prevent edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with pheochromocytoma is to administer beta-blockers to control blood pressure. Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-secreting tumor that can cause severe hypertension. Beta-blockers are used to block the effects of catecholamines and help control blood pressure in these clients. Encouraging a high-sodium diet (Choice B) would not be appropriate as it can worsen hypertension. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice C) is not directly related to managing pheochromocytoma. Restricting fluid intake (Choice D) may lead to dehydration and is not a recommended intervention for this condition.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes was previously well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• B. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake by cells. This medication can lead to hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with diabetes mellitus. Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker and is not known to significantly affect blood glucose levels. Phenelzine (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders; it does not typically impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not interfere with blood glucose regulation.

5. A client with hyperthyroidism is being treated with radioactive iodine. The nurse should teach the client to expect which of the following side effects?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Hypothyroidism
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with hyperthyroidism undergoes radioactive iodine treatment, it often leads to hypothyroidism due to the destruction of thyroid tissue. This occurs as a desired outcome of the treatment to reduce the overactive thyroid function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased heart rate, hypercalcemia, and weight loss are not expected side effects of radioactive iodine treatment for hyperthyroidism. Instead, the goal is to suppress the overactive thyroid, leading to a hypothyroid state.

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