HESI RN
Biology Test
1. At the beginning of meiosis, how many chromosomes does the diploid parent cell have?
- A. 23
- B. 24
- C. 46
- D. 54
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 46. At the start of meiosis, the diploid parent cell contains 46 chromosomes. During meiosis, the number of chromosomes is halved, resulting in each gamete having 23 chromosomes. Choice A (23) is incorrect because that is the number of chromosomes in a human gamete, not the parent cell. Choice B (24) and Choice D (54) are also incorrect as they do not reflect the correct number of chromosomes in a diploid parent cell at the beginning of meiosis.
2. Protein synthesis begins with a process known as transcription. What is produced during this process?
- A. A codon
- B. A DNA helix
- C. A DNA strand
- D. An RNA strand
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: An RNA strand. During transcription, the DNA template is used to produce an RNA strand, not a codon, DNA helix, or another DNA strand. A codon is a sequence of nucleotides that specifies a particular amino acid during translation, not produced during transcription. A DNA helix refers to the double-stranded structure of DNA, which is not produced during transcription. Another DNA strand is not produced during transcription since the process involves creating an RNA copy of a specific gene.
3. In which of the following does cellular respiration take place?
- A. Golgi apparatus
- B. Mitochondrion
- C. Chloroplast
- D. Ribosome
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Mitochondrion. Cellular respiration occurs in the mitochondria, where glucose is converted into energy through a series of metabolic processes. Choice A, Golgi apparatus, is incorrect as it is involved in modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins. Choice C, Chloroplast, is incorrect as it is the site of photosynthesis in plant cells, not cellular respiration. Choice D, Ribosome, is incorrect as it is responsible for protein synthesis, not energy production through cellular respiration.
4. A water molecule contains two types of atoms that are covalently bonded. Which of the following makes up a water molecule?
- A. One hydrogen atom and one oxygen atom
- B. One hydrogen atom and two oxygen atoms
- C. Two hydrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms
- D. Two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom. A water molecule consists of two hydrogen atoms covalently bonded to one oxygen atom. This forms a stable structure known as H2O. Choice A is incorrect as water molecule contains two hydrogen atoms. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct composition of a water molecule.
5. Which of the following makes it possible to predict the genotype and phenotype of the offspring of sexual reproduction?
- A. Punnett square
- B. Chi-square
- C. Microscope
- D. None of these
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Punnett square. A Punnett square is a tool specifically designed to predict the genotype and phenotype combinations of offspring resulting from a particular cross or breeding experiment. It helps in understanding the probability of different genotypes and phenotypes appearing in the offspring. Choice B, Chi-square, is a statistical test used to determine if there is a significant difference between the expected frequencies and the observed frequencies in a study. Choice C, Microscope, is used for viewing tiny structures and organisms, not for predicting genetic outcomes. Choice D, None of these, is incorrect as Punnett square is a valid tool for predicting genetic outcomes in offspring.
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