at the beginning of meiosis how many chromosomes does the diploid parent cell have

HESI RN

Biology Test

1. At the beginning of meiosis, how many chromosomes does the diploid parent cell have?

A. 23
B. 24
C. 46
D. 54

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 46. At the start of meiosis, the diploid parent cell contains 46 chromosomes. During meiosis, the number of chromosomes is halved, resulting in each gamete having 23 chromosomes. Choice A (23) is incorrect because that is the number of chromosomes in a human gamete, not the parent cell. Choice B (24) and Choice D (54) are also incorrect as they do not reflect the correct number of chromosomes in a diploid parent cell at the beginning of meiosis.

2. Which of the following molecules contains the code required for replication?

A. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
B. Transfer RNA (tRNA)
C. Messenger RNA (mRNA)
D. Ribonucleic acid (RNA)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). DNA contains the genetic information essential for replication, ensuring the accurate transmission of genetic material from one generation to the next. Choice B, Transfer RNA (tRNA), is involved in protein synthesis, not replication. Choice C, Messenger RNA (mRNA), carries genetic information from DNA to the ribosome but does not contain the code for replication. Choice D, Ribonucleic acid (RNA), is a broader category that includes both mRNA and tRNA, but the specific molecule containing the code required for replication is DNA.

3. During which stage of mitosis does the nuclear envelope begin to disappear and the chromosomes start attaching to the spindle forming along the cell's axis?

A. Prometaphase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Prophase

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Prometaphase. During prometaphase, the nuclear envelope disintegrates, and chromosomes start attaching to spindle fibers. In metaphase, chromosomes align in the middle of the cell. Anaphase is characterized by the separation of sister chromatids, and prophase involves the condensation of chromosomes and the beginning of spindle formation.

4. What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids?

A. There is no difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids.
B. Saturated fatty acids contain double bonds, unlike unsaturated fatty acids.
C. Saturated fatty acids often contain two or more pairs of double bonds, unlike unsaturated fatty acids.
D. Saturated fatty acids contain no double bonds, unlike unsaturated fatty acids.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Saturated fatty acids contain no double bonds between the carbon atoms in their hydrocarbon chains, making them more solid at room temperature. Choice A is incorrect because there is a significant difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately states that saturated fatty acids contain double bonds, which is a property of unsaturated fatty acids. Choice C is also incorrect as saturated fatty acids do not contain double bonds, let alone two or more pairs of double bonds.

5. Which of the following makes it possible to predict the genotype and phenotype of the offspring of sexual reproduction?

A. Punnett square
B. Chi-square
C. Microscope
D. None of these

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Punnett square. A Punnett square is a tool specifically designed to predict the genotype and phenotype combinations of offspring resulting from a particular cross or breeding experiment. It helps in understanding the probability of different genotypes and phenotypes appearing in the offspring. Choice B, Chi-square, is a statistical test used to determine if there is a significant difference between the expected frequencies and the observed frequencies in a study. Choice C, Microscope, is used for viewing tiny structures and organisms, not for predicting genetic outcomes. Choice D, None of these, is incorrect as Punnett square is a valid tool for predicting genetic outcomes in offspring.