HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
- B. Administer lactulose as prescribed.
- C. Monitor the client's weight daily.
- D. Assess the client's neurological status.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering lactulose is the first priority in managing a client with cirrhosis to reduce ammonia levels and prevent worsening hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the intestines and promotes its excretion through the stool. This intervention is crucial in preventing the development or progression of hepatic encephalopathy. Administering a diuretic (Choice A) may be necessary to manage ascites, but it is not the priority over lactulose in this scenario. Monitoring the client's weight (Choice C) is important to assess fluid retention but is not the first intervention required. Assessing the client's neurological status (Choice D) is essential in cirrhosis, but administering lactulose takes precedence to prevent hepatic encephalopathy.
2. The nurse is reviewing a client's electrocardiogram and determines the PR interval (PRI) is prolonged. What does this finding indicate?
- A. Initiation of the impulses from a location outside the SA node
- B. Inability of the SA node to initiate an impulse at the normal rate
- C. Increased conduction time from the SA node to the AV junction
- D. Interference with the conduction through one or both ventricles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When the PR interval is prolonged, it signifies an increased conduction time from the SA node through the AV junction. This finding is characteristic of a first-degree heart block where there is a delay in the electrical conduction at the level of the AV node. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the significance of a prolonged PR interval.
3. A client with a spinal cord injury is admitted to the ICU. Which nursing intervention is most important to include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Monitor for signs of autonomic dysreflexia.
- B. Implement measures to prevent pressure ulcers.
- C. Perform passive range of motion exercises.
- D. Ensure that the client is turned every two hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening condition that can occur in clients with spinal cord injuries, especially those with injuries above the T6 level. It is characterized by a sudden onset of excessively high blood pressure, pounding headache, profuse sweating, and flushing above the level of injury. Failure to recognize and treat autonomic dysreflexia promptly can lead to seizures, stroke, or even death. Therefore, monitoring for signs of autonomic dysreflexia is crucial in clients with spinal cord injuries. Choices B, C, and D are important interventions too, but in the context of a spinal cord injury, monitoring for autonomic dysreflexia takes priority due to its potentially life-threatening nature.
4. A client who is at 10-weeks gestation calls the clinic because she has been vomiting for the past 24 hours. The nurse determines that the client has no fever. Which instructions should the nurse give to this client?
- A. Come to the clinic to be seen by a healthcare provider
- B. Increase your fluid intake and rest at home
- C. Take over-the-counter antiemetics as needed
- D. Monitor your symptoms and call if they worsen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to come to the clinic to be seen by a healthcare provider. Persistent vomiting during pregnancy can lead to dehydration, which requires medical evaluation. Choice B is incorrect because solely increasing fluid intake and resting at home may not be sufficient to address the potential dehydration and underlying causes of vomiting. Choice C is not recommended without medical evaluation, as over-the-counter antiemetics should be used under healthcare provider guidance during pregnancy. Choice D is not the best option here because with persistent vomiting and risk of dehydration, immediate medical assessment is crucial to ensure the well-being of both the client and the fetus.
5. A newly graduated female staff nurse requests reassignment to another client because a male client is asking her for a date and making suggestive comments. Which response is best for the nurse manager to provide?
- A. I have to call the supervisor to get someone else to transfer to this unit to care for him.
- B. I know you are a good nurse and can handle this client in a professional manner.
- C. I'll talk to the client about his behavior and insist that he stop it immediately.
- D. I'll change your assignment, but let's talk about how a nurse should respond to this kind of client.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best response for the nurse manager to provide in this situation is option D, which involves changing the assignment to address the nurse's immediate concern. It also offers an opportunity to have a conversation with the nurse about how to professionally handle such situations in the future. Option A is not the best response as it does not address the underlying issue and simply shifts the problem to another staff member. Option B, while supportive, does not actively address the client's inappropriate behavior. Option C is not ideal as the nurse manager should handle discussions about inappropriate behavior with clients themselves rather than delegating it to the staff nurse.
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