HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. What teaching should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication in the morning to avoid frequent urination at night.
- B. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
- C. Avoid potassium-rich foods, such as bananas and oranges.
- D. Monitor the client’s potassium levels weekly.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide is to increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to fluid loss and electrolyte imbalances, so adequate fluid intake is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is typically taken in the morning to avoid nighttime urination. Choice C is incorrect as potassium-rich foods should not be avoided but monitored, as hydrochlorothiazide can cause potassium loss. Choice D is incorrect as potassium levels should be monitored regularly, but not necessarily weekly, unless indicated by the healthcare provider.
2. A male client admitted for schizophrenia is noted to be diaphoretic and pacing the hallway. What is the most important intervention?
- A. Take the client's temperature and blood pressure.
- B. Encourage the client to rest.
- C. Plan an activity involving physical exercise.
- D. Carefully observe the client throughout the shift.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the most important intervention for a male client with schizophrenia who is diaphoretic and pacing the hallway is to carefully observe the client throughout the shift. Diaphoresis and pacing can be indicators of agitation or distress in clients with schizophrenia. Careful observation is crucial to monitor the client's safety, assess for any potential escalation of symptoms, and provide timely intervention if needed. Taking the client's temperature and blood pressure (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for safety and observation. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice B) may not be effective if the client is agitated. Planning an activity involving physical exercise (Choice C) could potentially exacerbate the situation rather than addressing the immediate need for observation and safety.
3. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime for an infant, IM, every 8 hours. The vial is 500 mg with a concentration of 100 mg/ml after reconstitution. How many ml should the nurse administer?
- A. 3 ml.
- B. 0.4 ml.
- C. 1.2 ml.
- D. 0.9 ml.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To administer 35 mg of celtazidime from a 100 mg/ml solution, the nurse should give 0.4 ml of the reconstituted celtazidime solution. The calculation is 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml, but since the vial is 500 mg, the answer is 0.35 ml * (500 mg / 100 mg) = 0.4 ml. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.
4. A client with peripheral artery disease reports pain while walking. What intervention should the nurse recommend?
- A. Encourage the client to increase physical activity.
- B. Instruct the client to take rest breaks during walking.
- C. Apply warm compresses to the legs to improve circulation.
- D. Massage the affected leg to relieve the pain.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with peripheral artery disease often experience claudication (leg pain during walking) due to decreased blood flow. Encouraging rest breaks during walking helps to manage pain and improve circulation. Rest breaks allow the muscles to recover from ischemia caused by inadequate blood supply. Increasing physical activity without breaks may worsen the symptoms. Applying warm compresses can potentially lead to burns or skin damage in individuals with compromised circulation. Massaging the affected leg is contraindicated in peripheral artery disease as it can further compromise blood flow.
5. A client with pneumonia is receiving intravenous (IV) antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?
- A. Client's respiratory rate decreases from 24 to 20 breaths per minute
- B. White blood cell count decreases to normal range
- C. Client reports increased energy levels
- D. Cough becomes productive with green sputum
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment and the client's condition is improving. Monitoring the white blood cell count is a more objective indicator of the body's response to the antibiotics. Choices A, C, and D may also be positive signs, but they are less specific and may vary among individuals. Respiratory rate alone may not be sufficient to indicate improvement, as other factors can influence it. Energy levels and cough characteristics are subjective and may not always correlate with the effectiveness of antibiotic treatment.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access