a client with addisons disease becomes confused and weak what is the nurses first action
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone

1. A client with Addison's disease becomes confused and weak. What is the nurse's first action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a dose of hydrocortisone immediately. In Addison's disease, confusion and weakness can be signs of an adrenal crisis. Administering hydrocortisone promptly is crucial to prevent further deterioration. Checking electrolyte levels (Choice B) is important but not the first action in managing an acute adrenal crisis. Administering normal saline (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation. Measuring blood pressure in both arms (Choice D) is not the initial action needed to address the client's confusion and weakness in Addison's disease.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site should the nurse select?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections in adults because it is free from major blood vessels and nerves, reducing the risk of injury. The deltoid muscle can be used for smaller volumes of medication, primarily vaccines. The vastus lateralis muscle is commonly used in infants, toddlers, and young children. The dorsogluteal muscle site is discouraged due to its proximity to the sciatic nerve, increasing the risk of injury or nerve damage.

3. A client presents with a suspected infection and has a fever of 102°F. What is the nurse's immediate priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The immediate priority for a client with a suspected infection and fever is to take a blood culture before administering antibiotics. This step is crucial to identify the causative organism and ensure appropriate treatment. Administering antipyretics or encouraging fluid intake are important but should come after obtaining the blood culture to avoid interfering with test results. Monitoring vital signs, although essential, is not the immediate priority compared to identifying the infectious agent.

4. An older client with type 1 diabetes arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping, vomiting, lethargy, and confusion. What should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Start an IV infusion of normal saline. The client is showing signs of dehydration, such as abdominal cramping, vomiting, lethargy, and confusion, which can be exacerbated by hyperglycemia. Rehydration is the initial priority to address the fluid imbalance. Option B, obtaining a serum potassium level, though important in the management of diabetes, is not the immediate priority over rehydration. Option C, administering the client's usual dose of insulin, should only be done after addressing the dehydration and confirming the client's blood glucose levels. Option D, assessing the pupillary response to light, is not the most urgent intervention needed in this situation compared to rehydration to correct fluid imbalance.

5. A client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What client teaching is essential?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase fluid intake to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of ciprofloxacin. Crystalluria is the formation of crystals in the urine, which can be reduced by maintaining adequate hydration. Choice B is incorrect because ciprofloxacin can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding sunlight exposure is more relevant for medications that cause photosensitivity, not typically a concern with ciprofloxacin. Choice D is less essential than choice A because while reporting changes in urine color is important, preventing crystalluria through adequate fluid intake is a higher priority.

Similar Questions

A male client admitted for schizophrenia is noted to be diaphoretic and pacing the hallway. What is the most important intervention?
The nurse is caring for a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving digoxin therapy. The nurse reviews the client's lab results and notes that the serum potassium level is 3.0 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take next?
What does the nurse's signature on the client’s surgical consent form signify?
The nurse assesses a 72-year-old client who was admitted for right-sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate finding?
What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses