Nursing Elites

1. During a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted, which finding would call for immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally
• B. Mist is visible in the T-Piece
• C. Pulse oximetry of 88%
• D. Client is unable to speak

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. In this scenario, the priority is to address the low oxygen saturation to prevent further complications. Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds is a positive finding as it indicates air entry into both lungs. Mist in the T-piece is expected in clients with an endotracheal tube, and the inability to speak is common due to the tube's placement.

2. A client with a history of pancreatitis should avoid which of the following food choices?

• A. Noodles
• B. Vegetable soup
• C. Baked fish
• D. Cheddar cheese

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with pancreatitis should avoid high-fat foods like cheddar cheese as they can exacerbate symptoms. Noodles, vegetable soup, and baked fish are generally lower in fat and may be better tolerated by clients with pancreatitis.

3. A primigravida in the third trimester is hospitalized for preeclampsia. The nurse determines that the client's blood pressure is increasing. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the protein level in urine
• B. Have the client turn to the left side
• C. Take the temperature
• D. Monitor the urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of preeclampsia with increasing blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to have the client turn to the left side. This position helps improve blood flow to the placenta and fetus, reducing the risk of complications. Checking the protein level in urine (Choice A) is important for assessing preeclampsia but not the immediate priority when blood pressure is increasing. Taking the temperature (Choice C) is not directly related to addressing increased blood pressure in preeclampsia. Monitoring urine output (Choice D) is essential but not the first action to take when blood pressure is rising.

4. A client is receiving intravenous heparin therapy. What medication should the nurse have available in the event of an overdose of heparin?

• A. Protamine
• B. Amicar
• C. Imferon
• D. Diltiazem

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protamine is the antidote for heparin overdose. It works by neutralizing the anticoagulant effects of heparin. Amicar (Choice B) is used to treat excessive bleeding due to elevated fibrinolytic activity and is not the antidote for heparin overdose. Imferon (Choice C) is an iron supplement and is not indicated for heparin overdose. Diltiazem (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension and angina, not for heparin overdose. Therefore, the correct choice is Protamine (Choice A).

5. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which of these instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. You should avoid eating or drinking anything after midnight the day before the test.
• B. You may have a light breakfast the morning of the test.
• C. You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution the day before the test.
• D. You will need to avoid taking any medications the day before the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution the day before the test.' Before a colonoscopy, it is essential to cleanse the colon thoroughly by drinking a bowel preparation solution. This helps to ensure that the colon is clear for the procedure, allowing for better visualization and examination of the colon. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding eating or drinking after midnight, having a light breakfast, and avoiding medications are not specific instructions related to the colonoscopy preparation process.

Similar Questions