Nursing Elites

1. During a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted, which finding would call for immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally
• B. Mist is visible in the T-Piece
• C. Pulse oximetry of 88%
• D. Client is unable to speak

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. In this scenario, the priority is to address the low oxygen saturation to prevent further complications. Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds is a positive finding as it indicates air entry into both lungs. Mist in the T-piece is expected in clients with an endotracheal tube, and the inability to speak is common due to the tube's placement.

2. When introducing solid foods to an infant, what food should be recommended to be introduced first?

• A. Strained fruits
• B. Pureed meats
• C. Cooked egg whites
• D. Iron-fortified cereal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When introducing solid foods to infants, iron-fortified cereal is usually recommended as the first food due to its high nutritional value and the importance of iron for the baby's development. Strained fruits (choice A) are often introduced later due to their higher sugar content. Pureed meats (choice B) and cooked egg whites (choice C) are usually introduced after iron-fortified cereal to provide additional sources of protein and other nutrients.

3. A client with gastroesophageal reflux is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating after supper.
• B. I can drink coffee throughout the day.
• C. I drink milk when I get heartburn.
• D. I should not eat foods made with chocolate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Drinking coffee throughout the day can aggravate gastroesophageal reflux symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements that can help manage gastroesophageal reflux by avoiding late-night eating, not consuming trigger foods like chocolate, and using milk for relief when experiencing heartburn.

4. A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be

• A. Cover the areas with dry sterile dressings
• B. Assess for dyspnea or stridor
• C. Initiate intravenous therapy
• D. Administer pain medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.

5. The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250, and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?

• A. Diminished bowel sounds
• B. Loss of appetite
• C. A cold, pale lower leg
• D. Tachypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cold, pale lower leg is the most concerning finding as it indicates poor blood flow, potentially suggesting a serious circulatory problem that requires immediate attention. Diminished bowel sounds, loss of appetite, and tachypnea may be relevant but are not as indicative of a critical circulatory issue as a cold, pale lower leg.

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