Nursing Elites

1. An expectant father tells the LPN/LVN he fears that his wife 'is losing her mind.' He states she is constantly rubbing her abdomen and talking to the baby, and that she actually reprimands the baby when it moves too much. What recommendation should the nurse make to this expectant father?

• A. Reassure him that these are normal reactions to pregnancy and suggest that he discuss his concerns with the childbirth education nurse.
• B. Help him understand that his wife is experiencing normal maternal behaviors and bonding with the baby, and reassure him that these actions are positive.
• C. Ask him to observe his wife's behavior carefully for the next few weeks and report any similar behavior to the nurse at the next prenatal visit.
• D. Let him know that these behaviors are part of normal maternal-fetal bonding which occur once the mother feels fetal movement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The father's concerns about his wife's behaviors can be addressed by explaining that behaviors like talking to the baby and responding to fetal movements are part of normal maternal-fetal bonding. These actions indicate that the mother is connecting with the baby and are positive signs of a healthy pregnancy. The nurse should reassure the father that these behaviors are common and beneficial for the mother-baby relationship during pregnancy.

2. A 4-week-old premature infant has been receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) for the last three weeks. Which assessment finding indicates to the healthcare provider that the drug is effective?

• A. Slowly increasing urinary output over the last week.
• B. Respiratory rate changes from the 40s to the 60s.
• C. Changes in apical heart rate from the 180s to the 140s.
• D. Change in indirect bilirubin from 12 mg/dl to 8 mg/dl.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis, leading to an increase in red blood cell production and improving oxygen-carrying capacity. As the oxygenation status improves, there is a reduction in heart rate. Therefore, changes in apical heart rate from the 180s to the 140s indicate that the drug is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly reflect the expected outcome of epoetin alfa therapy. Increasing urinary output, changes in respiratory rate, and decreasing bilirubin levels are not primary indicators of the drug's effectiveness in this context.

3. A 16-year-old gravida 1, para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She is not presently convulsing. Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in this client’s nursing care plan?

• A. Keep airway equipment at the bedside.
• B. Allow liberal family visitation.
• C. Monitor blood pressure, pulse, and respirations q4h.
• D. Assess temperature q1h.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with eclampsia, the priority intervention is to keep airway equipment at the bedside to manage potential convulsions effectively. This proactive measure is essential to ensure rapid response and intervention in case of convulsions, which can occur in clients with eclampsia.

4. Why is complete bedrest necessary for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III?

• A. Complete bedrest decreases oxygen needs and demands on the heart muscle tissue.
• B. We want your baby to be healthy, and this is the only way we can ensure that will happen.
• C. I know you're upset. Would you like to talk about some activities you could do while in bed?
• D. Labor is difficult, and you need to use this time to rest before assuming child-caring duties.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Complete bedrest is necessary for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III to reduce the workload on the heart, lower oxygen consumption, and prevent complications associated with cardiac conditions like mitral stenosis. By remaining in bed, the client can help maintain cardiac function and promote a safer pregnancy outcome. Choice B is incorrect as it does not provide a specific reason related to the client's medical condition. Choice C is not addressing the medical necessity of bedrest for this particular client. Choice D is irrelevant and does not explain the importance of bedrest for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III.

5. A multiparous client with active herpes lesions is admitted to the unit with spontaneous rupture of membranes. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain blood culture.
• B. Administer penicillin.
• C. Cover lesion with a dressing.
• D. Prepare her for cesarean section.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Active herpes lesions at the time of delivery increase the risk of neonatal transmission. The most appropriate action in this scenario is to prepare the client for a cesarean section. A cesarean section is often recommended to reduce the risk of neonatal transmission of herpes simplex virus during delivery, especially when active lesions are present. This intervention helps minimize direct contact between the newborn and the infected genital tract secretions, thereby decreasing the risk of transmission.

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