Nursing Elites

1. A client who had her first baby three months ago and is breastfeeding her infant tells the nurse that she is currently using the same diaphragm that she used before becoming pregnant. What information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. Use an alternative form of contraception until a new diaphragm is obtained.
• B. After weaning, the diaphragm should be resized.
• C. Avoid intercourse during ovulation until the diaphragm size is reassessed.
• D. If weight gain during pregnancy was no more than 20 pounds, the diaphragm is safe to use.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should advise the client to use an alternative form of contraception until a new diaphragm that fits correctly post-pregnancy is obtained. It is essential to ensure proper fit for effective contraception, making it crucial to use an alternative method until the diaphragm is resized.

2. During an examination for possible cryptorchidism in an infant, what technique should be used?

• A. Place the infant in a warm room and use a calm approach.
• B. Hold the scrotum and palpate gently.
• C. Cleanse the penis with an antiseptic-soaked pad.
• D. Position the infant in a warm room to prevent muscle contraction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When examining an infant for cryptorchidism, it is important to position the infant in a warm room to prevent muscle contraction, which could cause the testes to retract. Placing the infant in a side-lying position may not be necessary for this specific examination. Holding the penis or retracting the foreskin is not relevant to the assessment for cryptorchidism. Cleansing the penis with an antiseptic pad is not indicated for this examination.

3. A 6-year-old child is diagnosed with rheumatic fever and demonstrates associated chorea (sudden aimless movements of the arms and legs). Which information should the nurse provide to the parents?

• A. Muscle tension decreases with fine motor skill projects, so these activities should be encouraged.
• B. The chorea or movements are temporary and will eventually disappear.
• C. Permanent lifestyle changes are not needed to promote safety in the home.
• D. Consistent discipline is not directly related to controlling the movements.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chorea, or sudden aimless movements associated with rheumatic fever, is temporary in nature and will eventually disappear on its own. It is important for the nurse to reassure the parents that these movements are part of the condition and typically resolve over time without the need for permanent lifestyle changes or strict discipline. Providing accurate information and reassurance to the parents can help alleviate concerns and promote understanding of the condition's course. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because muscle tension, permanent lifestyle changes, and consistent discipline are not directly related to the resolution of chorea in rheumatic fever.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a 38-week gestation newborn infant immediately following a vaginal birth. Which assessment finding best indicates that the infant is transitioning well to extrauterine life?

• A. Positive Babinski reflex.
• B. Flexion of all four extremities.
• C. Heart rate of 220 beats/min.
• D. Cries vigorously when stimulated.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A vigorous cry upon stimulation indicates that the newborn has good respiratory effort and is transitioning well to life outside the womb. It shows that the infant's airways are clear, and they are able to establish effective breathing, a crucial aspect of transitioning successfully to extrauterine life. Choices A, B, and C are not the best indicators of successful transition to extrauterine life. The Babinski reflex and flexion of extremities are normal neonatal reflexes and do not specifically indicate successful transition. A heart rate of 220 beats/min is abnormally high for a newborn and could indicate distress rather than a smooth transition.

5. A 26-year-old, gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 28 weeks gestation in preterm labor. She is given 3 doses of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine) 0.25 mg subcutaneously to stop her labor contractions. The LPN/LVN plans to monitor for which primary side effect of terbutaline sulfate?

• A. Drowsiness and bradycardia.
• B. Depressed reflexes and increased respirations.
• C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness.
• D. A flushed, warm feeling and a dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary side effects of terbutaline sulfate are related to its beta-adrenergic effects. Tachycardia and nervousness are common side effects of terbutaline sulfate. Tachycardia is expected due to the drug's beta-agonist properties, while nervousness can result from the stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors. It is crucial to monitor the client for these side effects to ensure early recognition and appropriate management.

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