Nursing Elites

1. At 20 weeks gestation, a client is scheduled for an ultrasound. In preparing the client for the procedure, the nurse should explain that the primary reason for conducting this diagnostic study is to obtain which information?

• A. Sex and size of the fetus.
• B. Chromosomal abnormalities.
• C. Fetal growth and gestational age.
• D. Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary reason for an ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation is to assess fetal growth, gestational age, and anatomical development. This evaluation helps ensure the fetus is developing appropriately and can detect any potential issues that may require intervention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because at 20 weeks, the primary focus of the ultrasound is not to determine the sex of the fetus, detect chromosomal abnormalities, or assess the lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio. While these factors may be evaluated in pregnancy, they are not the primary reasons for an ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation.

2. While caring for a laboring client on continuous fetal monitoring, the nurse notes a fetal heart rate pattern that falls and rises abruptly with a 'V' shaped appearance. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Change the maternal position.
• B. Administer oxygen at 10 L by mask.
• C. Prepare for a potential cesarean.
• D. Allow the client to begin pushing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of fetal heart rate patterns showing abrupt falls and rises with a 'V' shaped appearance, it indicates possible cord compression. Changing the maternal position, such as moving the mother onto her side, can relieve the pressure off the cord and help improve fetal oxygenation, making it the priority intervention to address the decelerations.

3. A client is admitted to the postpartum unit and tells the nurse she had rheumatic fever as a child, which resulted in some 'heart damage'. The nurse knows that this client is at particular risk for developing heart failure during the immediate postpartum period. Based on the client's history, which nursing problem has the highest priority?

• A. Nausea and vomiting.
• B. Risk for infection.
• C. Sleep deprivation.
• D. Fluid volume excess.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fluid volume excess is a priority concern in this client, as heart damage from rheumatic fever can impair the heart's ability to manage increased blood volume postpartum, leading to potential heart failure. Monitoring and managing fluid volume status are crucial to prevent complications in this high-risk client. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority in this situation. Nausea and vomiting, risk for infection, and sleep deprivation are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's physiologic stability compared to the risk of heart failure due to fluid volume excess.

4. A 4-year-old boy presents with a rash and is diagnosed with varicella (chickenpox). What is the most appropriate intervention to manage this condition?

• A. Administer oral acyclovir.
• B. Apply calamine lotion to soothe itching.
• C. Encourage scratching to relieve itching.
• D. Encourage bed rest to avoid spreading the rash.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for managing varicella (chickenpox) in a 4-year-old child is to apply calamine lotion to soothe itching. Calamine lotion helps alleviate the itching associated with the chickenpox rash, providing relief to the child. It is important to discourage scratching to prevent complications such as scarring or secondary bacterial infections. Encouraging bed rest can be beneficial for comfort but is not the primary intervention to manage chickenpox.

5. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
• B. Administer morphine sulfate.
• C. Start intravenous fluids.
• D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a tetralogy of Fallot situation, placing the infant in a knee-chest position is the initial priority to help increase systemic vascular resistance, which reduces the right-to-left shunt and improves oxygenation. This position can assist in optimizing oxygen levels before considering other interventions. Administering morphine sulfate (choice B) is not the first-line treatment for tetralogy of Fallot crisis. Starting intravenous fluids (choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (choice D) may not fully address the underlying issue of decreased systemic vascular resistance that leads to cyanosis in tetralogy of Fallot.

Similar Questions