Nursing Elites

1. At 20 weeks gestation, a client is scheduled for an ultrasound. In preparing the client for the procedure, the nurse should explain that the primary reason for conducting this diagnostic study is to obtain which information?

• A. Sex and size of the fetus.
• B. Chromosomal abnormalities.
• C. Fetal growth and gestational age.
• D. Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary reason for an ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation is to assess fetal growth, gestational age, and anatomical development. This evaluation helps ensure the fetus is developing appropriately and can detect any potential issues that may require intervention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because at 20 weeks, the primary focus of the ultrasound is not to determine the sex of the fetus, detect chromosomal abnormalities, or assess the lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio. While these factors may be evaluated in pregnancy, they are not the primary reasons for an ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation.

2. What is the most important assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct before the administration of epidural anesthesia to a client at 40 weeks' gestation?

• A. Maternal blood pressure.
• B. Level of pain sensation.
• C. Station of presenting part.
• D. Variability of fetal heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing maternal blood pressure is crucial before administering epidural anesthesia because it can cause hypotension, affecting both the mother and the fetus. Hypotension can lead to decreased placental perfusion, potentially compromising the fetal oxygen supply. Monitoring and maintaining maternal blood pressure within a safe range are essential to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the fetus during the administration of epidural anesthesia. The other options, such as assessing the level of pain sensation, station of presenting part, and variability of fetal heart rate, are important in obstetric care but are not as critical as monitoring maternal blood pressure to prevent complications related to epidural anesthesia administration.

3. Upon arrival in the nursery, a newborn infant is breathing satisfactorily but appears dusky. What action should the LPN/LVN take first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• B. Suction the infant's nares, then the oral cavity.
• C. Check the infant's oxygen saturation rate.
• D. Position the infant on the right side.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action in this scenario is to check the infant's oxygen saturation rate. This will provide crucial information on the infant's oxygen levels and the need for immediate oxygen therapy. Assessing oxygen saturation is essential in determining the severity of hypoxia and guiding further interventions to ensure adequate oxygenation. Option A is not the priority as immediate intervention related to oxygenation is needed before notifying the healthcare provider. Suctioning (Option B) may be necessary but should come after assessing oxygen saturation. Positioning the infant (Option D) does not address the immediate need to evaluate oxygen levels.

4. The healthcare provider notes on the fetal monitor that a laboring client has a variable deceleration. Which action should the healthcare provider implement first?

• A. Assess cervical dilation.
• B. Change the client's position.
• C. Administer oxygen via facemask.
• D. Turn off the oxytocin infusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Changing the client's position is the priority intervention for variable decelerations as it can relieve pressure on the umbilical cord, potentially resolving the deceleration and improving fetal oxygenation. Assessing cervical dilation, administering oxygen via facemask, and turning off the oxytocin infusion are important interventions but addressing the fetal distress caused by variable decelerations takes precedence.

5. In which chromosome pattern is Duchenne disease inherited?

• A. Autosomal dominant
• B. Autosomal recessive
• C. X-linked recessive
• D. Mitochondrial

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Duchenne disease is caused by a mutation in the DMD gene located on the X chromosome, leading to an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern. Males are typically affected by this disorder as they have only one X chromosome, while females are carriers with one normal and one affected X chromosome.

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