Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is complaining of severe pain and a feeling of pressure in her perineum. Her fundus is firm, and she has a moderate lochial flow. On inspection, the nurse finds that a perineal hematoma is beginning to form. Which assessment finding should the nurse obtain first?

• A. Urinary output and fluid intake.
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• C. Abdominal contour and bowel sounds.
• D. Heart rate and blood pressure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a postpartum client with a perineal hematoma, assessing heart rate and blood pressure is crucial as it can help determine the client's circulatory status. A perineal hematoma has the potential to cause significant blood loss leading to hypovolemia. Monitoring vital signs like heart rate and blood pressure can provide immediate information on the client's hemodynamic stability and guide further interventions if needed.

2. A newborn with a yellow abdomen and chest is being assessed. What should be the nurse's initial action?

• A. Assess bilirubin level.
• B. Administer phototherapy.
• C. Encourage feeding to help reduce bilirubin levels.
• D. Perform a bilirubin test every hour.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when assessing a newborn with a yellow abdomen and chest is to initially assess the bilirubin level. This helps determine the severity of jaundice in the newborn. Administering phototherapy (choice B) is a treatment intervention that follows the assessment. Encouraging feeding (choice C) can help with bilirubin excretion but is not the initial assessment. Performing a bilirubin test every hour (choice D) may not be necessary initially and could lead to unnecessary interventions.

3. A new mother calls the nurse stating that she wants to start feeding her 6-month-old child something besides breast milk, but is concerned that the infant is too young to start eating solid foods. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Advise the mother to wait at least another month before starting any solid foods.
• B. Instruct the mother to offer a few spoons of 2 or 3 pureed fruits at each meal.
• C. Reassure the mother that the infant is old enough to eat iron-fortified cereal.
• D. Encourage the mother to schedule a developmental assessment of the infant.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: At 6 months, infants are generally ready to start eating iron-fortified cereals as their iron stores begin to deplete. Introducing iron-fortified cereals at this age helps meet the infant's nutritional needs, particularly for iron, which becomes deficient as the infant's iron reserves diminish. It is a safe and appropriate first food to introduce to infants around 6 months of age, along with continued breastfeeding or formula feeding. Choice A is incorrect because waiting another month is not necessary if the infant is 6 months old. Choice B is incorrect as introducing pureed fruits as the first food may not provide the necessary iron that the infant needs at this stage. Choice D is also incorrect as scheduling a developmental assessment is not indicated solely based on the desire to start solid foods; it is more appropriate to reassure the mother about starting iron-fortified cereal.

4. A primipara patient asks what is the best pet to have at home to share time with. Which pet is not recommended?

• A. Dog
• B. Cat
• C. Bird
• D. Fish

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Birds are not recommended as pets for a primipara patient due to potential health risks associated with bird droppings, feathers, and dander. These factors may pose a risk to the newborn's health and the mother's well-being. Additionally, some birds can be loud, which may disrupt the baby's sleep patterns. Therefore, it is advisable for primipara patients to consider pets like dogs, cats, or fish as they generally have lower associated risks in a household with a newborn. Dogs, cats, and fish are relatively safer options compared to birds for primipara patients due to their lower risk of transmitting infections, allergens, or causing disturbances that could affect the newborn or the mother.

5. A breastfeeding infant, screened for congenital hypothyroidism, is found to have low levels of thyroxine (T4) and high levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). What is the best explanation for this finding?

• A. The thyroxine level is low because the TSH level is high.
• B. High thyroxine levels do not normally occur in breastfeeding infants.
• C. The thyroid gland does not produce normal levels of thyroxine for several weeks after birth.
• D. The TSH is high because of the low production of T4 by the thyroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: High TSH and low T4 levels indicate that the thyroid gland is not producing enough hormones, which is a sign of congenital hypothyroidism. In this case, the high TSH is a compensatory response by the body to stimulate the thyroid to produce more T4. Choice A is incorrect because TSH does not directly affect T4 levels; rather, it is the other way around where low T4 levels lead to high TSH levels. Choice B is incorrect because high thyroxine levels are not expected in congenital hypothyroidism. Choice C is incorrect as the thyroid gland should be producing normal levels of thyroxine shortly after birth, making this explanation unlikely in the context of congenital hypothyroidism.

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