HESI RN
Quizlet HESI Mental Health
1. An antidepressant medication is prescribed for a client who reports sleeping only 4 hours in the past 2 days and weight loss of 9 lbs within the last month. Which client goal is most important to achieve within the first three days of treatment?
- A. Meet scheduled appointments with a dietitian.
- B. Sleep at least 6 hours a night.
- C. Understand the purpose of the medication regimen.
- D. Describe the reasons for hospitalization.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important goal to achieve within the first three days of treatment is to ensure the client can sleep at least 6 hours a night. Adequate sleep is essential for stabilizing mood and improving overall functioning. Improving sleep patterns is crucial to address the reported sleep deficit and weight loss associated with depression. Choice A is not as urgent as improving sleep patterns. Choice C is important but not as immediate as addressing the sleep deficit. Choice D is unrelated to the immediate treatment goal of improving sleep and managing symptoms of depression.
2. A male client with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that he needs to 'make some deals so that he can improve his retirement savings.' Based on this information, which client outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Delay business decisions until his mania subsides.
- B. Identify the feelings associated with his behaviors.
- C. Seek legal counsel when making business decisions.
- D. Describe why he is feeling fearful about his finances.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In individuals with bipolar disorder experiencing mania, impulsivity and poor judgment are common. Delaying business decisions until the mania subsides is crucial to prevent impulsive and potentially harmful financial choices. Choice B, identifying feelings associated with behaviors, may be important but does not directly address the immediate need to prevent risky financial decisions. Seeking legal counsel (Choice C) may be appropriate in some situations but is not the priority in managing acute mania. Describing why he feels fearful about finances (Choice D) is relevant for understanding emotions but does not address the immediate risk of impulsive financial actions during mania.
3. Carolina is surprised when her patient does not show for a regularly scheduled appointment. When contacted, the patient states, 'I don't need to come see you anymore. I have found a therapy app on my phone that I love.' How should Carolina respond to this news?
- A. That sounds exciting, would you be willing to visit and show me the app?
- B. At this time, there is no real evidence that the app can replace our therapy.
- C. I am not sure that is a good idea right now; we are so close to progress.
- D. Why would you think that is a better option than meeting with me?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Carolina should respond with choice A as it shows interest and willingness to understand the patient's new approach. By asking the patient to show the app, Carolina demonstrates openness to exploring the patient's perspective and the technology they find helpful. Choice B is incorrect as it appears dismissive, failing to acknowledge the patient's autonomy in choosing an alternative therapy method. Choice C is also inappropriate as it undermines the patient's decision-making and progress achieved so far. Choice D comes off as confrontational and judgmental, which could lead to the patient feeling defensive and less likely to engage in a constructive conversation.
4. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement for a male client with schizophrenia who is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit?
- A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
- B. Isolate the client from other clients.
- C. Administer a PRN sedative.
- D. Escort the client to his room.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Echolalia, the constant repetition of what others are saying, can be disruptive to the therapeutic environment. The most appropriate intervention is to escort the client to his room. This action provides the client with a private space where he can engage in the behavior without disturbing other clients. Avoiding acknowledgment of the behavior (Choice A) may not address the issue and could lead to increased annoyance among other clients. Isolating the client (Choice B) may have negative psychological effects and should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for safety concerns. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be considered only as a last resort and if other de-escalation techniques have been unsuccessful.
5. A client who is known to abuse drugs is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to a client who is exhibiting benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms?
- A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
- B. Perphenazine (Trilafon)
- C. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
- D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is the correct choice for managing benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms. Benzodiazepines are drugs that can lead to physical dependence, and abrupt discontinuation can result in withdrawal symptoms. Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine itself, is often used in a controlled manner to taper off the drug gradually and manage withdrawal symptoms effectively. Choices A, Diphenhydramine, and B, Perphenazine, are not typically used to manage benzodiazepine withdrawal. Choice C, Isocarboxazid, is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used in the treatment of depression and not indicated for benzodiazepine withdrawal.
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