Nursing Elites

1. An antidepressant medication is prescribed for a client who reports sleeping only 4 hours in the past 2 days and weight loss of 9 lbs within the last month. Which client goal is most important to achieve within the first three days of treatment?

• A. Meet scheduled appointments with a dietitian.
• B. Sleep at least 6 hours a night.
• C. Understand the purpose of the medication regimen.
• D. Describe the reasons for hospitalization.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important goal to achieve within the first three days of treatment is to ensure the client can sleep at least 6 hours a night. Adequate sleep is essential for stabilizing mood and improving overall functioning. Improving sleep patterns is crucial to address the reported sleep deficit and weight loss associated with depression. Choice A is not as urgent as improving sleep patterns. Choice C is important but not as immediate as addressing the sleep deficit. Choice D is unrelated to the immediate treatment goal of improving sleep and managing symptoms of depression.

2. A client is agitated and physically aggressive. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Calmly inform the client that they will be placed in seclusion if they do not calm down.
• B. Discuss with the client the reasons for their agitation and aggression.
• C. Tell the client that physical aggression is not acceptable and must stop.
• D. Seek assistance from other staff members and follow the facility’s protocol.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a situation where a client is agitated and physically aggressive, the priority for the RN is to ensure the safety of the client and others. Seeking assistance from other staff members is crucial as it allows for a prompt response to manage the situation effectively and according to the facility’s protocol. Choices A, B, and C do not address the immediate need for safety or involve the collaboration of other staff members, which is essential in handling aggressive behaviors in a healthcare setting.

3. A teenager who has lost 20 pounds in the last three months is admitted to the hospital with hypotension and tachycardia. The client reports irregular menses and hair loss. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client’s plan of care?

• A. Initiate caloric and nutritional therapy.
• B. Implement behavioral modification therapy.
• C. Evaluate the client for low self-esteem.
• D. Record daily weights and graph trends.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client presents with evidence of anorexia nervosa resulting from self-starvation, which is a life-threatening condition. Providing nutrition and calories is the priority intervention so that the risk of electrolyte imbalance and severe dehydration can be reduced. Behavioral modification therapy (Choice B) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the priority in this acute situation. Evaluating for low self-esteem (Choice C) may be part of the nursing assessment but does not address the immediate life-threatening issues. Recording daily weights and graphing trends (Choice D) is important for monitoring progress but does not address the critical need for nutritional therapy in this case.

4. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

5. A client who has a history of bipolar disorder is recovering from a manic episode and is now experiencing depressive symptoms. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
• B. Provide a detailed schedule of daily activities.
• C. Discuss the importance of medication adherence.
• D. Encourage the client to engage in group therapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for suicidal ideation is the priority when a client with bipolar disorder is transitioning from a manic episode to a depressive phase. Suicidal ideation is a critical concern during depressive episodes, and ensuring the client's safety is the top priority. Providing a detailed schedule of daily activities (Choice B) may be helpful but is not the immediate priority over assessing for suicidal ideation. Discussing the importance of medication adherence (Choice C) and encouraging group therapy (Choice D) are essential components of care but are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the context of potential suicidal ideation.

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