Nursing Elites

1. An antidepressant medication is prescribed for a client who reports sleeping only 4 hours in the past 2 days and weight loss of 9 lbs within the last month. Which client goal is most important to achieve within the first three days of treatment?

• A. Meet scheduled appointments with a dietitian.
• B. Sleep at least 6 hours a night.
• C. Understand the purpose of the medication regimen.
• D. Describe the reasons for hospitalization.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important goal to achieve within the first three days of treatment is to ensure the client can sleep at least 6 hours a night. Adequate sleep is essential for stabilizing mood and improving overall functioning. Improving sleep patterns is crucial to address the reported sleep deficit and weight loss associated with depression. Choice A is not as urgent as improving sleep patterns. Choice C is important but not as immediate as addressing the sleep deficit. Choice D is unrelated to the immediate treatment goal of improving sleep and managing symptoms of depression.

2. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse’s station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
• B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
• C. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.
• D. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is experiencing a dystonic reaction due to dopamine depletion, which is a known side effect of Risperidone. Dystonia presents as abnormal muscle contractions and postures. The immediate management for this side effect is the administration of an anticholinergic medication like Benztropine (Cogentin). Choice A is incorrect as thioridazine is not the recommended medication for dystonic reactions. Choice B is incorrect as a hot pack would not effectively address the underlying cause of the dystonic reaction. Choice D is incorrect as occupational therapy is not the appropriate intervention for managing acute dystonia.

3. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric inpatient unit with a bandaged flesh wound after attempting to shoot himself. He was divorced one year ago, lost his job four months ago, and suffered a breakup of his current relationship last week. What is the most likely source of this client’s current feelings of depression?

• A. Feelings of frustration.
• B. A sense of loss.
• C. Poor self-esteem.
• D. A lack of intimate relationships.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's recent history of divorce, job loss, and breakup of a current relationship indicates a series of significant losses. These losses are likely the primary source of his feelings of depression, leading to a sense of loss. While feelings of frustration (choice A) and poor self-esteem (choice C) could be contributing factors, the immediate trigger for his current emotional state appears to be the series of losses. A lack of intimate relationships (choice D) may be a consequence of the client's depressive symptoms rather than the root cause in this scenario.

4. A male client with bipolar disorder who began taking lithium carbonate five days ago is complaining of excessive thirst, and the RN finds him attempting to drink water from the bathroom sink faucet. Which intervention should the RN implement?

• A. Report the client’s serum lithium level to the healthcare provider (HCP).
• B. Encourage the client to suck on hard candy to relieve the symptoms.
• C. No action is needed since polydipsia is a common side effect.
• D. Tell the client that drinking from the faucet is not allowed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to suck on hard candy is the appropriate intervention in this situation. Excessive thirst is a common side effect of lithium therapy. Sucking on hard candy can help alleviate the symptom without posing any harm. Reporting the client's serum lithium level to the healthcare provider (Choice A) is not necessary at this point as the symptom of excessive thirst is a known side effect and does not indicate toxicity. No action is needed (Choice C) is incorrect because addressing the client's distress is essential. Telling the client that drinking from the faucet is not allowed (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue of excessive thirst and may cause further distress to the client.

5. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Decrease in manic episodes.
• B. Improvement in depressive symptoms.
• C. Reduction in anxiety symptoms.
• D. Increased sleep duration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.

Similar Questions