Nursing Elites

1. An antidepressant medication is prescribed for a client who reports sleeping only 4 hours in the past 2 days and weight loss of 9 lbs within the last month. Which client goal is most important to achieve within the first three days of treatment?

• A. Meet scheduled appointments with a dietitian.
• B. Sleep at least 6 hours a night.
• C. Understand the purpose of the medication regimen.
• D. Describe the reasons for hospitalization.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important goal to achieve within the first three days of treatment is to ensure the client can sleep at least 6 hours a night. Adequate sleep is essential for stabilizing mood and improving overall functioning. Improving sleep patterns is crucial to address the reported sleep deficit and weight loss associated with depression. Choice A is not as urgent as improving sleep patterns. Choice C is important but not as immediate as addressing the sleep deficit. Choice D is unrelated to the immediate treatment goal of improving sleep and managing symptoms of depression.

2. A client who has a history of bipolar disorder is recovering from a manic episode and is now experiencing depressive symptoms. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
• B. Provide a detailed schedule of daily activities.
• C. Discuss the importance of medication adherence.
• D. Encourage the client to engage in group therapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for suicidal ideation is the priority when a client with bipolar disorder is transitioning from a manic episode to a depressive phase. Suicidal ideation is a critical concern during depressive episodes, and ensuring the client's safety is the top priority. Providing a detailed schedule of daily activities (Choice B) may be helpful but is not the immediate priority over assessing for suicidal ideation. Discussing the importance of medication adherence (Choice C) and encouraging group therapy (Choice D) are essential components of care but are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the context of potential suicidal ideation.

3. When preparing to administer a domestic violence screening tool to a female client, which statement should the RN provide?

• A. If you are experiencing abuse from your partner, I am required to ask you these questions.
• B. It is a requirement by law for me to inquire if you are a victim of domestic violence.
• C. Your healthcare provider must be informed if you are facing any domestic abuse.
• D. All clients undergo screening for domestic abuse due to its prevalence in our society.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because screening all clients for domestic abuse as a routine part of care helps in early identification and support. Choice A is incorrect as it may imply that the questions are only asked if abuse is already suspected. Choice B is incorrect because it emphasizes the legal obligation rather than the importance of routine screening. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on the healthcare provider's need rather than the benefit to the client of routine screening.

4. What assessment questions should the nurse ask when attempting to determine a teenager’s mental health resilience? Select all that apply.

• A. How did you cope when your father deployed with the Army for a year in Iraq?
• B. Who did you go to for advice while your father was away for a year in Iraq?
• C. How do you feel about talking to a mental health counselor?
• D. Where do you see yourself in 10 years?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The question 'How do you feel about talking to a mental health counselor?' is the most appropriate to assess the teenager's mental health resilience as it directly addresses their willingness to seek help and cope effectively. Choices A and B focus on coping mechanisms during a specific event, which may not reflect the teenager's overall resilience. Choice D is more related to future aspirations rather than assessing current mental health resilience.

5. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

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