HESI RN
Quizlet HESI Mental Health
1. An antidepressant medication is prescribed for a client who reports sleeping only 4 hours in the past 2 days and weight loss of 9 lbs within the last month. Which client goal is most important to achieve within the first three days of treatment?
- A. Meet scheduled appointments with a dietitian.
- B. Sleep at least 6 hours a night.
- C. Understand the purpose of the medication regimen.
- D. Describe the reasons for hospitalization.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important goal to achieve within the first three days of treatment is to ensure the client can sleep at least 6 hours a night. Adequate sleep is essential for stabilizing mood and improving overall functioning. Improving sleep patterns is crucial to address the reported sleep deficit and weight loss associated with depression. Choice A is not as urgent as improving sleep patterns. Choice C is important but not as immediate as addressing the sleep deficit. Choice D is unrelated to the immediate treatment goal of improving sleep and managing symptoms of depression.
2. A middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder suffers from psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and lack of motivation. Which intervention is likely to be most effective in returning this client to a normal level of functioning?
- A. Provide education on methods to enhance sleep.
- B. Teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities.
- C. Suggest that the client develop a list of pleasurable activities.
- D. Encourage the client to exercise.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Teaching the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities is the most effective intervention in this scenario. This intervention helps address psychomotor retardation and enhances motivation and functioning. By structuring the client's day, it can provide a sense of purpose, routine, and accomplishment. Option A, providing education on methods to enhance sleep, may be helpful but does not directly address the client's overall functioning. Option C, suggesting the client develop a list of pleasurable activities, may provide temporary relief but may not address the core symptoms of major depressive disorder. Option D, encouraging the client to exercise, can be beneficial, but in this case, addressing the lack of structure and motivation through a daily plan is more appropriate.
3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select all that apply.
- A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
- B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
- C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
- D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction. The presentation of stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign changes suggest an acute dystonic reaction, which is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage these acute dystonic reactions. Option A is incorrect because holding the medication without addressing the acute symptoms may lead to worsening of the condition. Option B is incorrect as wiping with cold water or alcohol does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Option D is incorrect because it mentions tardive dyskinesia, which is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements that occur with long-term antipsychotic use, not the acute dystonic reaction seen here.
4. A male client who recently lost a loved one arrives at the mental health center and tells the nurse he is no longer interested in his usual activities and has not slept for several days. Which priority nursing problem should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Risk for suicide
- B. Sleep deprivation
- C. Situational low self-esteem
- D. Social isolation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for suicide. Considering the client's recent loss, lack of interest in activities, and sleep disturbances, the nurse should prioritize assessing and addressing the risk for suicide. This client is displaying warning signs such as loss of interest in usual activities and sleep disturbances, which are commonly associated with suicidal ideation. B: Sleep deprivation is not the priority issue in this scenario, as the client's lack of sleep is likely a symptom of a deeper emotional struggle. C: Situational low self-esteem and D: Social isolation may be concerns for this client but do not take precedence over the immediate risk of suicide, given the presented symptoms.
5. A client with anorexia nervosa has a body mass index (BMI) of 16.5 and has been diagnosed with bradycardia. Which of the following findings should the RN be most concerned about?
- A. Body temperature of 96.8°F.
- B. Heart rate of 52 BPM.
- C. Serum potassium level of 4.1 mEq/L.
- D. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with anorexia nervosa and bradycardia, monitoring for ECG changes is crucial as these changes may indicate potentially life-threatening cardiac complications. While other findings like low body temperature, bradycardia, and serum potassium levels are concerning, ECG changes specifically reflect the impact of bradycardia on the heart's electrical activity and should be the priority for the nurse to assess and address.
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