Nursing Elites

1. A client with depression and a history of a recent suicide attempt is being discharged from the hospital. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further follow-up?

• A. “I will take my medication as prescribed.”
• B. “I have a plan to attend weekly therapy sessions.”
• C. “I feel that I am completely recovered now.”
• D. “I will avoid people who make me feel worse.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client with depression and a history of a recent suicide attempt states, “I feel that I am completely recovered now,” it indicates a need for further follow-up. This statement suggests a potential lack of insight into the ongoing nature of depression and may lead to discontinuation of necessary treatment and support. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate positive and proactive attitudes towards managing depression and suicidal ideation, indicating a willingness to engage in treatment, therapy, and self-care practices.

2. A female client on a psychiatric unit is sweating profusely while vigorously doing push-ups and then running the length of the corridor several times before crashing into furniture in the sitting room. Picking herself up, she begins to verbally attack other clients. What intervention is most appropriate for the RN to use to manage the client’s behavior?

• A. Assist the client to a safe area to avoid injury.
• B. Establish clear and firm limits with the client.
• C. Offer medication to help calm the client down.
• D. Speak with the client in a calm, non-threatening manner.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client to a safe area is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. This action helps prevent injury to the client and others while allowing for de-escalation in a controlled environment. While establishing clear and firm limits (Choice B) may be necessary in some situations, the immediate priority here is safety. Offering medication (Choice C) should not be the first response unless the situation escalates further and poses a risk to the client or others. Speaking with the client in a calm, non-threatening manner (Choice D) may not be effective when the client is in an agitated state and engaging in risky behavior.

3. The nurse is planning client teaching for a 35-year-old client with early alcoholic cirrhosis. Which self-care measure should the nurse emphasize for the client’s recovery?

• A. Support group meetings.
• B. Vitamin B and multivitamin supplements.
• C. Diet with adequate calories and protein.
• D. Alcohol abstinence.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alcohol abstinence is the most critical self-care measure for a client with early alcoholic cirrhosis. Continued alcohol consumption can lead to further liver damage and worsen the condition. Support group meetings may offer emotional support but do not address the root cause of the issue. While vitamin supplements and a nutritious diet are important for overall health, alcohol abstinence takes precedence in managing cirrhosis caused by alcohol consumption.

4. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement for a male client with schizophrenia who is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit?

• A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
• B. Isolate the client from other clients.
• C. Administer a PRN sedative.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Echolalia, the constant repetition of what others are saying, can be disruptive to the therapeutic environment. The most appropriate intervention is to escort the client to his room. This action provides the client with a private space where he can engage in the behavior without disturbing other clients. Avoiding acknowledgment of the behavior (Choice A) may not address the issue and could lead to increased annoyance among other clients. Isolating the client (Choice B) may have negative psychological effects and should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for safety concerns. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be considered only as a last resort and if other de-escalation techniques have been unsuccessful.

5. An adolescent with anorexia nervosa is participating in a cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) program. Which behavior indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Client adheres to a meal plan and gains weight.
• B. Client discusses the impact of the disorder on family.
• C. Client expresses a desire to change behavior.
• D. Client reduces the frequency of binge eating.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In treating anorexia nervosa with cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), the primary goals are to normalize eating behaviors and achieve weight restoration. Therefore, adherence to a meal plan and weight gain are crucial indicators of treatment effectiveness. While discussing the impact of the disorder on the family (Choice B) can be beneficial for therapy, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of CBT in treating anorexia nervosa. Expressing a desire to change behavior (Choice C) is a positive step, but actual behavioral changes such as adhering to a meal plan are more indicative of progress. Reducing the frequency of binge eating (Choice D) is more relevant for other eating disorders like bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa.

Similar Questions