Nursing Elites

1. Following discharge teaching, a male client with a duodenal ulcer tells the nurse he will drink plenty of dairy products to help coat and protect his ulcer. What is the best follow-up action by the nurse?

• A. Remind the client that it is also important to switch to decaffeinated coffee and tea.
• B. Suggest that the client also plans to eat frequent small meals to reduce discomfort.
• C. Review with the client the need to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream.
• D. Reinforce this teaching by asking the client to list a dairy food that he might select.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because diets rich in milk and cream stimulate gastric acid secretion, which can exacerbate a duodenal ulcer. Therefore, it is essential to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream. Choice A is incorrect because switching to decaffeinated coffee and tea does not address the issue of avoiding milk and cream products. Choice B is incorrect because while eating frequent small meals can help with discomfort, it does not address the specific issue of avoiding milk and cream. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the need to avoid milk and cream products.

2. The healthcare provider should observe most closely for drug toxicity when a client receives a medication that has which characteristic?

• A. Low bioavailability
• B. Rapid onset of action
• C. Short half-life
• D. Narrow therapeutic index

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, narrow therapeutic index. Narrow therapeutic index (NTI) drugs are defined as those drugs where small differences in dose or blood concentration may lead to serious therapeutic failures or adverse drug reactions. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the risk of drug toxicity. Low bioavailability (Choice A) refers to the amount of drug that enters the bloodstream unchanged after administration. Rapid onset of action (Choice B) and short half-life (Choice C) are characteristics related to drug effectiveness and metabolism but do not necessarily indicate a higher risk of drug toxicity.

3. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of nausea and a significant drop in blood pressure suggest a potential right ventricular infarction. The appropriate intervention for this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. This fluid resuscitation helps improve cardiac output by increasing preload, which can be beneficial in right ventricular infarction. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin may further lower blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the client has a pulse. Providing an antiemetic medication does not address the underlying issue of hypotension and potential right ventricular involvement.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes ceftazidime (Fortaz) 35 mg every 8 hours IM for an infant. The 500 mg vial is labeled with the instruction to add 5.3 ml diluent to provide a concentration of 100 mg/ml. How many ml should the nurse administer for each dose?

• A. 0.35 ml
• B. 0.40 ml
• C. 0.50 ml
• D. 0.45 ml

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the volume to be administered for 35 mg of ceftazidime, divide the prescribed dose by the concentration: 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml. Rounding off, the nurse should administer 0.4 ml for each dose. Choice A is incorrect as it doesn't consider rounding off. Choice C is incorrect because it's not the correct calculation. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't reflect the accurate volume needed.

5. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Increased abdominal girth
• B. Confusion and altered mental status
• C. Yellowing of the skin
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are concerning in a client with cirrhosis as they may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Increased abdominal girth can be seen in ascites, yellowing of the skin is due to jaundice, and peripheral edema is associated with fluid retention in cirrhosis, but confusion and altered mental status are more closely linked to hepatic encephalopathy, which can progress rapidly and needs urgent attention.

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