Nursing Elites

1. Following discharge teaching, a male client with a duodenal ulcer tells the nurse he will drink plenty of dairy products to help coat and protect his ulcer. What is the best follow-up action by the nurse?

• A. Remind the client that it is also important to switch to decaffeinated coffee and tea.
• B. Suggest that the client also plans to eat frequent small meals to reduce discomfort.
• C. Review with the client the need to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream.
• D. Reinforce this teaching by asking the client to list a dairy food that he might select.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because diets rich in milk and cream stimulate gastric acid secretion, which can exacerbate a duodenal ulcer. Therefore, it is essential to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream. Choice A is incorrect because switching to decaffeinated coffee and tea does not address the issue of avoiding milk and cream products. Choice B is incorrect because while eating frequent small meals can help with discomfort, it does not address the specific issue of avoiding milk and cream. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the need to avoid milk and cream products.

2. In a client with liver cirrhosis admitted with ascites and jaundice, which laboratory value is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dl
• B. Bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dl
• C. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
• D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with liver cirrhosis because it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Serum albumin, though low, is expected in cirrhosis and contributes to ascites. Bilirubin elevation is common in liver disease but may not be the most concerning in this case. Prothrombin time is typically prolonged in liver disease but may not be as acute as an elevated ammonia level suggesting hepatic encephalopathy.

3. The nurse is assessing a 1-year-old child with bronchiolitis caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Wheezing heard on expiration
• B. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• C. Respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute
• D. Nasal flaring with sternal retractions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nasal flaring with sternal retractions indicates severe respiratory distress in a 1-year-old with bronchiolitis, requiring immediate intervention. Nasal flaring and sternal retractions are signs of increased work of breathing and decreased air movement, indicating the child is struggling to breathe. Wheezing on expiration (Choice A) is common in bronchiolitis but may not require immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 90% (Choice B) is low but may not be the most critical finding in this case. A respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute (Choice C) is elevated but alone may not indicate the need for immediate intervention as much as nasal flaring and sternal retractions.

4. An adult male who lives alone is brought to the Emergency Department by his daughter who found him unresponsive. Initial assessment indicated that the client has minimal respiratory effort, and his pupils are fixed and dilated. At the daughter's request, the client is intubated and ventilated. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Notify the client's minister of his condition.
• B. Determine if the client has an executed living will.
• C. Provide the family with information about palliative care.
• D. Discuss the possibility of organ donation with the family.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying whether the client has an executed living will is crucial to ensuring that his treatment preferences are followed. In this critical situation, knowing the client's wishes regarding medical interventions is paramount. Options A, C, and D are not the highest priority as they do not directly address the immediate need to determine the client's treatment preferences.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client with muscle wasting in the gluteal region. What is the most appropriate site for the injection?

• A. Dorsogluteal site
• B. Ventrogluteal site
• C. Deltoid site
• D. Vastus lateralis site

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The vastus lateralis site is the most appropriate for an IM injection in a client with muscle wasting in the gluteal region. Administering the injection in the vastus lateralis ensures effective medication delivery due to muscle wasting in the gluteal region, preventing potential complications associated with the dorsogluteal or ventrogluteal sites, which may not be suitable in this specific client case. The deltoid site is mainly used for smaller volumes of medication and may not be ideal for this scenario.

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