Nursing Elites

1. A client who is post-op day 1 after abdominal surgery reports pain at the incision site. The nurse notes the presence of a small amount of serosanguineous drainage. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Apply a sterile dressing to the incision.
• B. Reinforce the dressing and document the findings.
• C. Remove the dressing and assess the incision site.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to reinforce the dressing and document the findings. It is important to monitor the incision site closely after surgery, especially when there is a small amount of serosanguineous drainage. Reinforcing the dressing helps maintain cleanliness and pressure on the wound. Documenting the findings is crucial for tracking the client's progress and alerting healthcare providers if necessary. Applying a sterile dressing (Choice A) may not be needed if the current dressing is intact. Removing the dressing (Choice C) can increase the risk of contamination. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is not the first step for minor drainage on post-op day 1.

2. The nurse provides feeding tube instructions to the wife of a client with end-stage cancer. The client's wife performs a return demonstration correctly but begins crying and tells the nurse, 'I just don't think I can do this every day.' The nurse should direct further teaching strategies toward which learning domain?

• A. Cognitive.
• B. Affective.
• C. Comprehension.
• D. Psychomotor.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Affective. The affective domain involves feelings and emotions, which are significant factors in the wife’s ability to cope and perform the required care. In this scenario, the wife's emotional response indicates a need for further support and teaching strategies to address her emotional concerns and build her confidence. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the issue at hand is not purely cognitive (knowledge), comprehension (understanding), or psychomotor (physical skills), but rather an emotional response that falls under the affective domain.

3. A female client with ovarian cancer is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. White blood cell count of 2,000/mm³
• B. Platelet count of 100,000/mm³
• C. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL
• D. Serum creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A white blood cell count of 2,000/mm³ is critically low and places the client at high risk for infection, requiring immediate intervention. Neutropenia, a low white blood cell count, is a common side effect of chemotherapy. A decreased white blood cell count compromises the immune system's ability to fight infections, making it a priority to address to prevent serious complications. Platelet count of 100,000/mm³ is relatively low but not as urgent as a severely low white blood cell count. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is within the normal range for females and does not require immediate intervention. Serum creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL is also within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's health.

4. A client who had a gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) evacuated 2 days ago is being... What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Teach the client about the use of a home pregnancy test.
• B. Schedule weekly home visits to draw hCG values.
• C. Schedule a 5-week follow-up with the healthcare provider.
• D. Begin chemotherapy administration during the first home visit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to implement is to schedule weekly home visits to draw hCG values. Monitoring hCG levels is crucial in detecting potential complications like choriocarcinoma following GTD evacuation. Teaching about home pregnancy tests (Choice A) may not be as immediate and critical as monitoring hCG levels. A 5-week follow-up appointment (Choice C) may be too delayed for close monitoring. Initiating chemotherapy (Choice D) without appropriate hCG monitoring and evaluation is not recommended as the first-line intervention.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Jugular venous distention
• B. Shortness of breath
• C. Crackles in the lungs
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: In a client with left-sided heart failure, crackles in the lungs are the most concerning finding as they indicate pulmonary congestion, which requires immediate intervention to prevent worsening heart failure symptoms and respiratory distress. Jugular venous distention, shortness of breath, and peripheral edema are also common in heart failure but are not as critical as crackles in the lungs because they may indicate fluid overload or right-sided heart failure, which are important to address but not as urgently as managing pulmonary congestion.

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