Nursing Elites

1. A client who is post-op day 1 after abdominal surgery reports pain at the incision site. The nurse notes the presence of a small amount of serosanguineous drainage. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Apply a sterile dressing to the incision.
• B. Reinforce the dressing and document the findings.
• C. Remove the dressing and assess the incision site.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to reinforce the dressing and document the findings. It is important to monitor the incision site closely after surgery, especially when there is a small amount of serosanguineous drainage. Reinforcing the dressing helps maintain cleanliness and pressure on the wound. Documenting the findings is crucial for tracking the client's progress and alerting healthcare providers if necessary. Applying a sterile dressing (Choice A) may not be needed if the current dressing is intact. Removing the dressing (Choice C) can increase the risk of contamination. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is not the first step for minor drainage on post-op day 1.

2. In caring for a client with a PCA infusion of morphine sulfate through the right cephalic vein, the nurse assesses that the client is lethargic with a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 118 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. What assessment should the nurse perform next?

• A. Note the appearance and patency of the client's peripheral IV site.
• B. Palpate the volume of the client's right radial pulse.
• C. Auscultate the client's breath sounds bilaterally.
• D. Observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of potential opioid overdose, such as lethargy, hypotension, tachycardia, and bradypnea. The next assessment the nurse should perform is to observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe. This evaluation is crucial in determining if the client is receiving an excessive amount of morphine, leading to the observed symptoms. Checking the PCA pump syringe will provide essential information to address the client's condition promptly and prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation as they do not directly address the potential cause of the client's symptoms related to morphine administration.

3. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored before the procedure?

• A. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dl
• B. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum calcium of 8.0 mg/dl
• D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dl

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis as it indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Hyperkalemia can be exacerbated during hemodialysis, making it crucial to closely monitor serum potassium levels before the procedure. Monitoring serum creatinine, serum calcium, or hemoglobin levels is important in managing ESRD but is not the immediate focus before hemodialysis. Therefore, option B is the correct choice.

4. A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, the outer part of her eyebrows has disappeared, and her eyes are all puffy. Which follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask?

• A. Is there a history of female baldness in your family?
• B. Are you under any unusual stress at home or work?
• C. Do you work with hazardous chemicals?
• D. Have you noticed any changes in your fingernails?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the manifestations reported by the client, such as coarse hair, missing eyebrows, and puffy eyes, are indicative of hypothyroidism. Changes in the fingernails, such as brittle or pitted nails, can also be associated with hypothyroidism. Option A is incorrect as female baldness is not directly related to the reported symptoms. Option B is less relevant as stress typically does not cause these specific symptoms. Option C is also less relevant as exposure to hazardous chemicals would present with different symptoms.

5. A male client with ulcerative colitis received a prescription for a corticosteroid last month, but because of the side effects, he stopped taking the medication 6 days ago. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Anxiety and restlessness
• B. Increased bowel movements
• C. Abdominal cramping
• D. Fever and chills

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anxiety and restlessness. Abruptly stopping corticosteroids can cause adrenal insufficiency, leading to symptoms such as anxiety and restlessness. These symptoms indicate a potential serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Increased bowel movements and abdominal cramping are common side effects of ulcerative colitis and may not warrant immediate intervention. Fever and chills are not typically associated with adrenal insufficiency caused by corticosteroid withdrawal.

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