after checking the urinary drainage system for kinks in the tubing the nurse determines that a client who has returned from the post anesthesia care h
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HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. After checking the urinary drainage system for kinks in the tubing, the nurse determines that a client who has returned from the post-anesthesia care has a dark, concentrated urinary output of 54 ml for the last 2 hours. What priority nursing action should be implemented?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse's priority action should be to report the findings to the surgeon. An adult should typically produce about 60 ml of urine per hour, so a dark, concentrated, and low urine output of 54 ml over 2 hours raises concerns. This change in urine output may indicate issues such as dehydration, renal problems, or inadequate fluid intake. Reporting this finding to the surgeon is crucial to ensure appropriate evaluation and intervention. Irrigating the catheter, applying manual pressure to the bladder, or increasing the IV flow rate are not appropriate actions based on the information provided and could potentially worsen the situation.

2. A healthcare professional reviews a client's electrolyte laboratory report and notes that the potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would the healthcare professional note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: U waves. A low potassium level (hypokalemia) can manifest as U waves on an ECG. U waves are small, extra deflections seen after the T wave and may indicate cardiac irritability. Absent P waves (Choice B) are associated with conditions like atrial fibrillation. Elevated T waves (Choice C) can be seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Elevated ST segment (Choice D) is not typically associated with low potassium levels but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction.

3. A client is taking lansoprazole (Prevacid) for the chronic management of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. The nurse advises the client to take which of the following products if needed for a headache?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred choice for pain relief in individuals taking lansoprazole for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome due to its lower risk of stomach irritation compared to NSAIDs like ibuprofen and aspirin. Naproxen, ibuprofen, and aspirin are NSAIDs that can increase the risk of stomach irritation and bleeding, which is why they are not recommended for individuals with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome who are already on lansoprazole to reduce stomach acid production.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed prednisone for an acute exacerbation of asthma. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels closely. Prednisone can elevate blood glucose levels, necessitating close monitoring. Adjusting the insulin dose may be necessary, but this should be managed by a healthcare provider. Prednisone should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal discomfort and should not be stopped suddenly to prevent adverse effects.

5. The nurse is preparing a client for a scheduled surgical procedure. What client statement should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client's statement of drinking juice after midnight should be reported to the healthcare provider. Consuming liquids after midnight can increase the risk of aspiration during surgery under general anesthesia. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical to report for the client's safety during the surgical procedure. Anxiety about surgery, latex allergy, and postoperative nausea, although important for overall care, do not pose immediate risks during the surgical preparation as the intake of fluids does.

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