a client is admitted for cellulitis surrounding an insect bite on the lower right arm and intravenous iv antibiotic therapy is prescribed which action
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam

1. A client is admitted for cellulitis surrounding an insect bite on the lower right arm, and intravenous (IV) antibiotic therapy is prescribed. Which action should the nurse implement before performing venipuncture?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before performing venipuncture for IV therapy, the nurse should lower the right arm below the level of the heart. Lowering the arm helps dilate the veins, making it easier to locate and access a suitable vein for the procedure. Elevating the arm on a pillow, applying a tourniquet above the insertion site, or applying a warm compress to the insertion site are not appropriate actions before venipuncture as they can affect the venous blood flow and make the procedure more challenging.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema requires immediate intervention in a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax as it can indicate a pneumothorax recurrence or air leak. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention. Crepitus around the insertion site can be expected post-procedure and may not necessitate immediate action. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is a normal finding and does not raise immediate concerns.

3. A client with liver cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL is elevated and concerning in a client with liver cirrhosis, as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to cognitive impairment, altered mental status, and even coma. Serum albumin, bilirubin, and prothrombin time are also important markers in liver cirrhosis but are not as directly associated with the risk of hepatic encephalopathy as elevated ammonia levels.

4. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which laboratory value is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS), a serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is the most concerning laboratory value. This high osmolarity indicates severe dehydration, which can lead to serious complications. Elevated serum glucose levels (choice A) are expected in HHS but do not directly reflect dehydration. Blood pressure (choice B) and serum pH (choice D) are important parameters to monitor but are not the most concerning values in HHS compared to serum osmolarity.

5. A 12-year-old boy has a body mass index (BMI) of 28, a systolic pressure, and a glycosylated hemoglobin (HBA1C) of 7.8%. Which selection indicates that his mother understands the management of his diet?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Fresh fruit salad with low-fat yogurt is a healthier choice for managing the diet of a 12-year-old boy with a high BMI and elevated HBA1C. This choice provides a good balance of nutrients, fiber, and low-fat content, helping to lower BMI and maintain healthy blood sugar levels. Choices A, B, and D are less ideal as they contain higher levels of refined carbohydrates, saturated fats, and sugars, which can contribute to weight gain and worsen blood sugar control in this scenario.

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