Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted for cellulitis surrounding an insect bite on the lower right arm, and intravenous (IV) antibiotic therapy is prescribed. Which action should the nurse implement before performing venipuncture?

• A. Lower the right arm below the level of the heart.
• B. Elevate the right arm on a pillow.
• C. Apply a tourniquet above the insertion site.
• D. Apply a warm compress to the insertion site.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before performing venipuncture for IV therapy, the nurse should lower the right arm below the level of the heart. Lowering the arm helps dilate the veins, making it easier to locate and access a suitable vein for the procedure. Elevating the arm on a pillow, applying a tourniquet above the insertion site, or applying a warm compress to the insertion site are not appropriate actions before venipuncture as they can affect the venous blood flow and make the procedure more challenging.

2. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse a client's readiness for pulmonary function tests?

• A. Expresses an understanding of the procedure.
• B. NPO for 6 hrs.
• C. No known drug allergies.
• D. Intravenous access intact.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Expresses an understanding of the procedure.' This choice indicates that the client is mentally prepared for the pulmonary function tests, as understanding the procedure shows readiness and cooperation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B, 'NPO for 6 hrs,' pertains to fasting status and is not directly related to readiness for the test. Choice C, 'No known drug allergies,' is important information but does not specifically indicate readiness for pulmonary function tests. Choice D, 'Intravenous access intact,' is related to vascular access and not a direct indicator of readiness for the pulmonary function tests.

3. A client with rapid respirations and audible rhonchi is admitted to the intensive care unit because of a pulmonary embolism (PE). Low-flow oxygen by nasal cannula and weight-based heparin protocol are initiated. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Evaluate blood clotting factors daily.
• B. Encourage incentive spirometry use.
• C. Administer pain medication as needed.
• D. Monitor for signs of bleeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Evaluating blood clotting factors daily is crucial when a client is on heparin therapy to monitor for potential complications such as bleeding or clotting issues. This monitoring helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range and reduces the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Encouraging incentive spirometry use is beneficial for preventing atelectasis and improving lung function, but in this scenario, monitoring blood clotting factors takes precedence. Administering pain medication as needed is important for the client's comfort but is not the priority in managing a pulmonary embolism. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important due to heparin therapy, but evaluating blood clotting factors provides more specific information on the client's response to treatment.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain a blood glucose level.
• B. Administer an anticoagulant as prescribed.
• C. Perform a neurological assessment.
• D. Administer aspirin as prescribed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing a neurological assessment is the priority in this situation as it helps in evaluating the cause of the new onset of confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation. This assessment will provide crucial information about the client's neurological status, which can guide further interventions. Obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice A) is important but should not be the first step when dealing with a new onset of confusion. Administering an anticoagulant (Choice B) or aspirin (Choice D) may be necessary depending on the underlying cause, but assessing the neurological status comes first to determine the appropriate course of action.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Headache
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Low urine output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, an elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. This finding can indicate worsening hypertension, which requires prompt intervention to prevent complications such as cardiovascular events or further kidney damage. Increased fatigue (Choice A) is a common symptom in CKD and can be expected with the condition itself or the treatment. Headache (Choice B) can also occur but is less specific to CKD or its treatment. Low urine output (Choice D) is a concern in CKD but may not be directly related to erythropoietin therapy.

Similar Questions