an adolescent who was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 1 at the age of 9 is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis which occurrence is
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Nursing Elites

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HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. An adolescent who was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9 is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of ketoacidosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Infections, like a cold and ear infection, increase the body's metabolic needs and insulin resistance, making diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) more likely. While missing insulin doses or not following dietary restrictions can trigger DKA, an illness is the most common precipitating factor in pediatric Type 1 diabetes. Option B is less likely as missing insulin can lead to hyperglycemia but might not be the immediate cause of ketoacidosis. Option C can contribute to DKA over time, but the acute trigger is usually an illness. Option D, overexertion during exercise, is less likely to cause DKA compared to an infection.

2. Which intervention should be prioritized by the nurse when assessing tissue perfusion post-above knee amputation (AKA)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the closest proximal pulse when assessing tissue perfusion post-above knee amputation (AKA). Checking the closest proximal pulse provides the best indication of tissue perfusion in the extremities after an AKA procedure. Observing the color and amount of wound drainage (Choice B) is important for wound care but does not directly assess tissue perfusion. Observing for swelling around the stump (Choice C) may indicate inflammation or fluid accumulation but is not the most direct way to assess tissue perfusion. Assessing the skin elasticity of the stump (Choice D) is more related to skin integrity and wound healing rather than tissue perfusion.

3. A client with heart failure reports nausea, vomiting, yellow vision, and palpitations. What should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The combination of nausea, vomiting, yellow vision, and palpitations in a heart failure patient is indicative of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should first obtain a list of the client's medications to verify if they are taking digoxin.

4. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An adolescent expressing 'life without purpose' after taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) may be indicating suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. The initial period of antidepressant treatment can increase the risk of suicidal thoughts, especially in younger populations. Increased appetite (Choice A) is a common side effect of duloxetine and may not require immediate follow-up. Mood swings (Choice C) and insomnia (Choice D) are also possible side effects of the medication but are not as urgent as addressing suicidal ideation.

5. A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, that the outer part of her eyebrows has disappeared, and that her eyes are puffy. What follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cold intolerance, fatigue, and other changes may indicate hypothyroidism, which could explain the hair and eyebrow loss, and puffy eyes. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this context and do not directly address the symptoms presented by the client.

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