Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent who was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9 is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of ketoacidosis?

• A. Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days
• B. Missed a dose of insulin
• C. Did not follow dietary restrictions
• D. Overexerted during exercise

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Infections, like a cold and ear infection, increase the body's metabolic needs and insulin resistance, making diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) more likely. While missing insulin doses or not following dietary restrictions can trigger DKA, an illness is the most common precipitating factor in pediatric Type 1 diabetes. Option B is less likely as missing insulin can lead to hyperglycemia but might not be the immediate cause of ketoacidosis. Option C can contribute to DKA over time, but the acute trigger is usually an illness. Option D, overexertion during exercise, is less likely to cause DKA compared to an infection.

2. A client admitted to the ICU with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH) has developed osmotic demyelination. What is the first intervention the nurse should implement?

• A. Evaluate the client's swallowing ability.
• B. Reorient the client frequently.
• C. Patch one eye to minimize confusion.
• D. Perform range of motion exercises.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the client's swallowing ability. Osmotic demyelination can cause dysphagia, putting the client at risk for aspiration. Assessing swallowing function is crucial to prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia. Reorienting the client frequently (Choice B) is more suitable for confusion related to conditions like delirium. Patching one eye (Choice C) is a technique used for diplopia or double vision, not specifically indicated for osmotic demyelination. Performing range of motion exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial for preventing complications of immobility but is not the priority intervention for osmotic demyelination.

3. A young male client is admitted to rehabilitation following a right AKA (above-the-knee amputation) for a severe traumatic injury. He is in the commons room and anxiously calls out to the nurse, stating that his 'right foot is aching.' The nurse offers reassurance and support. Which additional intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Teach the client distraction techniques
• B. Provide a soft blanket to ease discomfort
• C. Administer prescribed pain medication
• D. Encourage discussion of feelings about the loss of his limb

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's report of pain in a missing limb is consistent with phantom limb pain, which can be distressing. Encouraging the client to discuss his feelings helps address the emotional and psychological aspects of the amputation and supports his overall recovery. Teaching distraction techniques (choice A) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying emotional distress. Providing a soft blanket (choice B) is not the priority when dealing with phantom limb pain. Administering pain medication (choice C) may not effectively manage phantom limb pain as it is more related to central nervous system changes rather than tissue damage.

4. A client receiving IV heparin reports tarry stools and abdominal pain. What interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
• B. Assess the characteristics of the client's pain.
• C. Obtain recent partial thromboplastin time results.
• D. Monitor stool for the presence of blood.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the client receiving IV heparin who reports tarry stools and abdominal pain is to monitor the stool for the presence of blood. This is crucial to assess for gastrointestinal bleeding, a potential complication of heparin therapy. Assessing the characteristics of the client's pain may be helpful but is not the priority when signs of GI bleeding are present. Administering warfarin is not appropriate without a thorough assessment and confirmation of the cause of symptoms. While obtaining recent partial thromboplastin time results is important in monitoring heparin therapy, in this scenario, the immediate concern is to assess for possible GI bleeding.

5. A client with lupus erythematosus is prescribed prednisone. What teaching should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
• B. Avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection.
• C. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
• D. Take extra calcium supplements to prevent osteoporosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client with lupus erythematosus prescribed prednisone is to avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection. Prednisone suppresses the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Taking the medication with food may help reduce stomach upset but is not the priority teaching. Taking prednisone in the morning may help reduce insomnia, but infection prevention is more critical. While prednisone can lead to osteoporosis, advising extra calcium supplements is not the most immediate concern when starting the medication.

Similar Questions