Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing
• C. Barrel chest appearance
• D. A pulse oximetry reading of 88%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute and the use of accessory muscles for breathing are concerning in COPD, they do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Similarly, a barrel chest appearance is a common finding in COPD and does not require urgent intervention compared to the critical need to address hypoxemia.

2. During an assessment of a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse is most likely to hear which of the following upon auscultation of the heart?

• A. S3 ventricular gallop
• B. Apical click
• C. Systolic murmur
• D. Split S2

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: An S3 ventricular gallop is an abnormal heart sound commonly heard in clients with congestive heart failure. This sound is indicative of fluid overload or volume expansion in the ventricles, which is often present in heart failure. <br> Incorrect Answers: <br> B: An apical click is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. <br> C: A systolic murmur may be heard in various cardiac conditions but is not specific to congestive heart failure. <br> D: A split S2 refers to a normal heart sound caused by the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves at slightly different times during inspiration, not directly related to congestive heart failure.

3. A client is experiencing chest pain and is prescribed nitroglycerin. What should the nurse assess before administering the medication?

• A. Monitor the client’s oxygen saturation level.
• B. Check the client’s heart rate and blood pressure.
• C. Evaluate the client’s level of consciousness.
• D. Assess the client's chest pain severity using a pain scale.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering nitroglycerin, it is crucial to check the client’s heart rate and blood pressure. Nitroglycerin can lower blood pressure and heart rate, so assessing these parameters is essential to prevent exacerbating hypotension or bradycardia. While monitoring the client’s oxygen saturation level is important in some situations, it is not the primary assessment needed before administering nitroglycerin. Evaluating the client’s level of consciousness is relevant for other conditions but not specifically necessary before giving nitroglycerin. Assessing chest pain severity using a pain scale is valuable for pain management but is not the priority assessment before administering nitroglycerin.

4. What assessment is most important for the nurse to perform for a client with dehydration receiving IV fluids?

• A. Monitor the client’s electrolyte levels.
• B. Check the client’s urine output hourly.
• C. Assess the client’s skin turgor regularly.
• D. Monitor the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client’s electrolyte levels. When a client is receiving IV fluids for dehydration, it is crucial to assess their electrolyte levels regularly. Dehydration can lead to imbalances in electrolytes, especially sodium and potassium, which are essential for maintaining fluid balance and proper organ function. Checking urine output (Choice B) is important but not as critical as monitoring electrolyte levels. Assessing skin turgor (Choice C) is an indirect method of assessing dehydration but does not provide specific information about electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice D) is important but not the most critical assessment in this scenario as electrolyte imbalances can have a more direct impact on the client's condition.

5. During an initial assessment, a healthcare provider notes that a client has elevated blood pressure. Which of the following findings is considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease?

• A. Elevated HDL cholesterol
• B. Low LDL cholesterol
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Low triglyceride levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is a significant risk factor for coronary artery disease because it increases the strain on the arteries, leading to potential damage and a higher risk of developing coronary artery disease. Elevated HDL cholesterol (Choice A) is actually considered beneficial as it helps reduce the risk of heart disease. Low LDL cholesterol (Choice B) is also beneficial as high levels of LDL are associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease. Low triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not typically considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease.

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