Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing
• C. Barrel chest appearance
• D. A pulse oximetry reading of 88%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute and the use of accessory muscles for breathing are concerning in COPD, they do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Similarly, a barrel chest appearance is a common finding in COPD and does not require urgent intervention compared to the critical need to address hypoxemia.

2. The nurse is feeding an older adult who was admitted with aspiration pneumonia. The client is weak and begins coughing while attempting to drink through a straw. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to drink more slowly
• B. Stop feeding and assess for signs of aspiration
• C. Elevate the head of the bed further
• D. Teach coughing and deep breathing exercises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When an older adult with aspiration pneumonia coughs while attempting to drink, it may indicate aspiration. Aspiration can lead to serious complications. Therefore, the appropriate intervention for the nurse in this situation is to stop feeding immediately and assess the client for signs of aspiration. Encouraging the client to drink more slowly (Choice A) may not address the risk of aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed further (Choice C) is generally beneficial to prevent aspiration but is not the priority when immediate assessment is needed. Teaching coughing and deep breathing exercises (Choice D) is not appropriate when the client is actively coughing during feeding and requires immediate assessment for potential aspiration.

3. A client with chronic liver disease develops jaundice. What is the most important assessment the nurse should perform?

• A. Assess the client’s skin for lesions or sores.
• B. Monitor the client’s liver function tests.
• C. Assess for changes in mental status and behavior.
• D. Monitor the client’s urine output closely.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease developing jaundice, the most important assessment the nurse should perform is to monitor the client’s urine output closely. Jaundice can indicate worsening liver function, so monitoring urine output helps assess kidney function and fluid balance, which are critical in chronic liver disease. Assessing the client’s skin for lesions or sores (Choice A) may be relevant for dermatological conditions but is not the priority in this case. Monitoring liver function tests (Choice B) is important but may not provide immediate information on the client’s current status. Assessing for changes in mental status and behavior (Choice C) is important for detecting hepatic encephalopathy but does not directly address the immediate concern of fluid balance and kidney function in the presence of jaundice.

4. Which task could be safely delegated by the nurse to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

• A. Accompanying a client who self-administers insulin
• B. Cleansing and dressing a small decubitus ulcer
• C. Monitoring a client's response to passive range of motion exercises
• D. Applying and caring for a client's rectal pouch

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because tasks like applying and caring for a client's rectal pouch are within the UAP's scope of practice, as they do not require clinical judgment. Choices A, B, and C involve more complex assessments or interventions that require clinical judgment and should be performed by licensed nursing staff.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?

• A. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime for best results.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by interfering with vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Therefore, consuming foods high in vitamin K can affect the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Warfarin is not affected by foods high in potassium; C) Warfarin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects; D) There is no specific requirement for taking warfarin at bedtime for best results.

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