a client is diagnosed with chronic renal failure and the nurse is teaching dietary modifications what should be limited in this clients diet
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

1. A client is diagnosed with chronic renal failure, and the nurse is teaching dietary modifications. What should be limited in this client's diet?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, proteins should be limited in the diet. When the kidneys are not functioning well, the buildup of protein byproducts can put additional stress on them. Limiting protein intake can help reduce the burden on the kidneys. Carbohydrates and fats do not need to be restricted in the same way as proteins. Vitamins are essential nutrients that should not be limited in the diet unless specified by a healthcare provider for a specific reason.

2. A client is receiving IV antibiotic therapy for sepsis. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment, making this the most objective indicator of improvement in a client with sepsis. Choices A, B, and C are subjective indicators and may not always directly correlate with the resolution of the underlying infection. While an increase in urine output, a client reporting feeling less fatigued, and a decrease in heart rate are positive signs, they are not as specific or directly related to the resolution of the infection as a decrease in white blood cell count.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.

4. The nurse is caring for a client post-surgery with an order to ambulate the client every 2 hours. Which of the following tasks could be safely delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting with ambulation is a task that can be safely delegated to a UAP as it is a supportive activity that does not require clinical judgment. Choices A, B, and D involve assessments, documentation, and evaluation, which require nursing knowledge and clinical judgment, making them tasks that should be performed by a licensed nurse.

5. A client presents with severe dehydration due to prolonged vomiting. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client's skin turgor and mucous membranes. When a client presents with severe dehydration, assessing skin turgor (elasticity of the skin) and mucous membranes (such as checking for dryness in the mouth) is crucial in determining the extent of dehydration. Encouraging the client to drink clear fluids (Choice A) may be important but assessing dehydration severity takes precedence. Monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is essential but assessing dehydration status comes first. Administering an antiemetic (Choice D) addresses vomiting but does not directly assess dehydration.

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