Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent client with meningococcal meningitis is receiving a continuous IV infusion of penicillin G. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver?

• A. 83
• B. 85
• C. 87
• D. 90

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 83. The pharmacy provided the infusion at 10 million units per liter, which requires a rate of 83 mL/hour. To calculate this, multiply the dosage by the volume of the IV solution and divide by the concentration of the IV solution in million units: 10 million units per liter x 8.3 L = 83 mL/hour. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculation based on the given information.

2. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan?

• A. Pap smear is sufficient to detect ovarian cancer
• B. Surgery is unnecessary based on negative Pap smear
• C. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
• D. No further tests are needed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A negative Pap smear does not rule out ovarian cancer, which often requires more comprehensive evaluation, including imaging studies or surgery. The client should be informed that the Pap smear primarily detects cervical cancer, not ovarian cancer. Therefore, further evaluation involving imaging studies or surgery may be necessary to determine the presence of ovarian cancer. Choice A is incorrect because a Pap smear is not sufficient to detect ovarian cancer. Choice B is incorrect because surgery may be necessary for further evaluation if ovarian cancer is suspected. Choice D is incorrect because further tests are needed to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer.

3. A client is experiencing angina at rest. Which statement indicates a good understanding of the care required?

• A. I will notify the nurse if my chest pain is not relieved in 30 minutes.
• B. I will use nitroglycerin as needed, every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses.
• C. I will avoid physical activity until the pain subsides completely.
• D. I will take nitroglycerin 30 minutes before any physical activity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using nitroglycerin as needed, every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses, is the appropriate management for angina at rest. This helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart. Choice A is incorrect because chest pain that persists at rest should be addressed immediately, not waiting for 30 minutes. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding physical activity is not a recommended approach during an angina episode. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be used during chest pain episodes, not as a preventive measure before physical activity.

4. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with newly diagnosed hypertension. Which lifestyle modification should the nurse emphasize to the client?

• A. Increase sodium intake to improve fluid balance
• B. Engage in regular physical activity
• C. Increase caffeine intake to improve energy
• D. Reduce potassium intake to lower blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Engaging in regular physical activity is a crucial lifestyle modification for managing hypertension. Regular exercise helps improve cardiovascular health, lower blood pressure, and contribute to overall well-being. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing sodium intake is not recommended for hypertension as it can worsen fluid retention and elevate blood pressure. Increasing caffeine intake is also not advised as it may lead to increased heart rate and blood pressure. Reducing potassium intake is not beneficial as potassium is essential for maintaining healthy blood pressure levels.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes a sepsis protocol for a client with multi-organ failure caused by a ruptured appendix. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the care plan?

• A. Ensure early ambulation
• B. Administer antibiotics as prescribed
• C. Maintain strict intake and output
• D. Monitor blood glucose levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In sepsis with multi-organ failure, monitoring intake and output is critical to assess renal function and fluid balance, as organ failure can cause fluid shifts and decreased kidney function. Antibiotics are essential to treat the infection, but monitoring intake and output provides real-time insight into the client's status, helping to detect early signs of worsening organ function. Early ambulation and blood glucose monitoring are important aspects of care but are not as crucial as maintaining strict intake and output in this situation.

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