a nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has gastroesophageal reflux which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for fur
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Practice Exam

1. A client with gastroesophageal reflux is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Drinking coffee throughout the day can aggravate gastroesophageal reflux symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements that can help manage gastroesophageal reflux by avoiding late-night eating, not consuming trigger foods like chocolate, and using milk for relief when experiencing heartburn.

2. A client is recovering from a hip replacement and is taking Tylenol #3 every 3 hours for pain. In checking the client, which finding suggests a side effect of the analgesic?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Constipation is a common side effect of Tylenol #3, which contains codeine. Codeine can slow down bowel movements, leading to constipation. Monitoring for constipation and implementing management strategies is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bruising at the operative site, elevated heart rate, and decreased platelet count are not commonly associated side effects of Tylenol #3.

3. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has Crohn's disease about foods to include in her diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Grilled chicken breast is a high-protein, low-fiber food that is well-tolerated by clients with Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that often requires a low-fiber diet to reduce irritation to the digestive tract. Vanilla milkshake is high in dairy and sugar content, which may trigger symptoms in some individuals with Crohn's disease. Buttered popcorn and broccoli are high in fiber, which can be difficult for individuals with Crohn's disease to digest and may exacerbate symptoms.

4. A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.

5. The nurse is assessing a client 2 hours postoperatively after a femoral popliteal bypass. The upper leg dressing becomes saturated with blood. The nurse's first action should be to

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario where the upper leg dressing becomes saturated with blood post-femoral popliteal bypass, the nurse's first action should be to apply pressure at the bleeding site. Applying pressure is essential to control hemorrhage and prevent further blood loss. Choice A is incorrect as wrapping the leg with elastic bandages would not address the immediate issue of controlling the bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because reinforcing the dressing and elevating the leg should come after controlling the bleeding. Choice D is incorrect as removing the dressings and re-dressing the incision should only be done after the bleeding is under control to prevent excessive blood loss.

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