Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Barrel-shaped chest
• B. Use of accessory muscles
• C. Oxygen saturation of 85%
• D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 85% is significantly low for a client with COPD and indicates hypoxemia, requiring immediate intervention. In COPD, the body's ability to oxygenate adequately is already compromised, so a saturation of 85% is particularly concerning. A barrel-shaped chest and use of accessory muscles are common findings in COPD due to chronic air trapping and increased work of breathing. While a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute is elevated, a low oxygen saturation is a more critical finding that necessitates prompt attention.

2. A woman with an anxiety disorder calls her obstetrician's office and tells the nurse of increased anxiety since the normal vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. Since she is breastfeeding, she stopped taking her antianxiety medications, but thinks she may need to start taking them again because of her increased anxiety. What response is best for the nurse to provide this woman?

• A. Describe the transmission of drugs to the infant through breast milk
• B. Encourage her to use stress-relieving alternatives, such as deep breathing exercises
• C. Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding
• D. Explain that anxiety is a normal response for the mother of a 3-week-old.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: There are several antianxiety medications that are not contraindicated for breastfeeding mothers, so it is important to inform her of this option.

3. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) using an alcohol-based gel hand cleaner before performing catheter care. The UAP rubs both hands thoroughly for 2 minutes while standing at the bedside. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the UAP to remain in the client's room until the procedure is completed.
• B. Explain that the hand rub can be completed in less than 2 minutes.
• C. Inform the UAP that handwashing helps to promote better asepsis.
• D. Determine why the UAP was not wearing gloves in the client's room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Explaining that hand rubs can be effective with less time allows the UAP to perform the procedure more efficiently while maintaining asepsis. Choice A is incorrect because the UAP does not need to remain in the client's room until the procedure is completed. Choice C is incorrect as the UAP was using an alcohol-based gel hand cleaner, not handwashing. Choice D is incorrect as the scenario does not mention any issue with glove usage, so it is not relevant to the situation at hand.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of myocardial infarction who is experiencing chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client with a history of myocardial infarction and chest pain. An ECG provides immediate information about the heart's electrical activity, helping to identify changes indicative of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Chest X-ray (Choice B) is not the initial diagnostic test for assessing chest pain related to myocardial infarction. Arterial blood gases (Choice C) are used to assess oxygenation and acid-base balance but are not the primary diagnostic test for myocardial infarction. An echocardiogram (Choice D) may provide valuable information about cardiac structure and function, but it is not the first-line diagnostic test for acute chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction.

5. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL
• B. Serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg
• C. Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L
• D. Serum potassium of 5.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is concerning in a client with HHS because it indicates severe dehydration and hyperosmolarity, which requires immediate intervention. In HHS, the elevated serum osmolarity leads to neurological symptoms and can result in serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a high serum glucose level (choice A) is typical in HHS, the osmolarity is a more direct indicator of dehydration and severity. Serum sodium (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition compared to the severe hyperosmolarity indicated by a high serum osmolarity level.

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