HESI RN
Community Health HESI 2023
1. An elderly client with a history of falls is being discharged from the hospital. Which intervention should the home health nurse implement to reduce the client's risk of falling at home?
- A. Install grab bars in the bathroom
- B. Provide a walker for ambulation
- C. Educate the client on fall prevention strategies
- D. Refer the client to a physical therapist
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Installing grab bars in the bathroom is crucial to reducing the elderly client's risk of falling at home. Grab bars provide physical support and stability, especially in areas like the bathroom where slips and falls are common among older adults. While providing a walker for ambulation (Choice B) can assist with mobility, it may not directly address the environmental hazards at home. Educating the client on fall prevention strategies (Choice C) is important but may not be sufficient if the physical environment is not modified to reduce fall risks. Referring the client to a physical therapist (Choice D) may help improve strength and balance but does not directly address the immediate environmental risk of falling at home.
2. A client is diagnosed with chronic renal failure, and the nurse is teaching dietary modifications. What should be limited in this client's diet?
- A. Carbohydrates
- B. Fats
- C. Proteins
- D. Vitamins
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In chronic renal failure, proteins should be limited in the diet. When the kidneys are not functioning well, the buildup of protein byproducts can put additional stress on them. Limiting protein intake can help reduce the burden on the kidneys. Carbohydrates and fats do not need to be restricted in the same way as proteins. Vitamins are essential nutrients that should not be limited in the diet unless specified by a healthcare provider for a specific reason.
3. A client at 28 weeks gestation calls the antepartum clinic and reports experiencing a small amount of bright red vaginal bleeding without uterine contractions or abdominal pain. What instruction should the LPN/LVN provide?
- A. Come to the clinic today for an ultrasound.
- B. Go immediately to the emergency room.
- C. Lie on your left side for about one hour and see if the bleeding stops.
- D. Bring a urine specimen to the lab tomorrow to determine if you have a urinary tract infection.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bright red vaginal bleeding without pain could indicate placental issues such as previa. An ultrasound is necessary to evaluate the cause. It is important to rule out potential serious conditions like placental previa, which can lead to further complications for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, prompt evaluation through an ultrasound at the clinic is essential for appropriate management and ensuring the well-being of the client and her baby.
4. A 9-year-old child is brought to the clinic with a fever, rash, and swollen joints. The nurse notes that the child had a sore throat two weeks ago that was not treated. What condition should the nurse suspect?
- A. Scarlet fever
- B. Rheumatic fever
- C. Kawasaki disease
- D. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the child's symptoms of fever, rash, and swollen joints following an untreated sore throat two weeks ago are indicative of rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever can develop as a complication of untreated streptococcal infections, leading to systemic inflammation and affecting various organs, including the joints. This condition manifests with symptoms such as fever, rash, and swollen joints, aligning with the child's presentation in this case. Scarlet fever typically presents with a sandpapery rash and strawberry tongue but does not involve joint inflammation. Kawasaki disease presents with fever, rash, and mucous membrane changes but does not typically involve joint swelling. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis can cause joint swelling but is not directly linked to a recent untreated sore throat.
5. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has produced diuresis and lowered the blood pressure
- B. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness
- C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
- D. The synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When medications with a similar action are administered, an additive effect occurs that is the sum of the effects of each medication. In this case, several medications that all lower blood pressure, when administered together, resulted in hypotension.