HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam Questions And Answers
1. A client 12 weeks pregnant comes to the emergency department with abdominal cramping and moderate vaginal bleeding. Speculum examination reveals 2 to 3 cm cervical dilation. The nurse would document these findings as which of the following?
- A. Threatened abortion
- B. Inevitable abortion
- C. Complete abortion
- D. Missed abortion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse would document these findings as an inevitable abortion. Inevitable abortion is characterized by cervical dilation with or without rupture of membranes and is associated with moderate to heavy vaginal bleeding. 'Threatened abortion' (choice A) refers to vaginal bleeding with a closed cervical os and no tissue passage. 'Complete abortion' (choice C) involves the passage of all products of conception. 'Missed abortion' (choice D) is the retention of a failed intrauterine pregnancy for an extended period without symptoms.
2. The following are delays associated with maternal mortality EXCEPT:
- A. Delay in recognizing danger signs
- B. Delay in arrival at a health facility
- C. Delay in initiating treatment
- D. Excessive blood loss
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Excessive blood loss is not a delay associated with maternal mortality but rather a direct complication. Delays in recognizing danger signs, arriving at a health facility, and initiating treatment are factors that can contribute to maternal mortality by impeding timely access to necessary care.
3. How does human sperm move?
- A. Flagella
- B. Cilia
- C. Neutrophils
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Human sperm moves using flagella, which are whip-like structures that aid in propulsion. Flagella are tail-like structures found in sperm cells and help them swim towards the egg for fertilization. Cilia are shorter, hair-like structures that are not involved in the movement of sperm. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell involved in the immune response and are not related to sperm locomotion.
4. Which of the following hormone ratios is MOST likely to be increased in a patient with PCOS?
- A. Progesterone/estrogen
- B. LH/FSH
- C. FSH/LH
- D. Glucagon/insulin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In patients with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), the LH/FSH ratio is most likely to be increased. This hormonal imbalance is a key characteristic of PCOS, where elevated LH levels relative to FSH contribute to the pathophysiology of the condition. Choice A, progesterone/estrogen ratio, is not typically a defining feature of PCOS. Choice C, FSH/LH ratio, is the reverse of what is commonly observed in PCOS. Choice D, glucagon/insulin ratio, is not directly related to the hormonal imbalances seen in PCOS.
5. Amniocentesis, a prenatal diagnostic test used to determine fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities, is based on:
- A. The karyotyping of the amniotic fluid
- B. Chorionic villus sampling
- C. Umbilical cord blood sampling
- D. Ultrasound
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Amniocentesis involves the analysis of the fetal cells present in the amniotic fluid, which is extracted from the amniotic sac surrounding the developing fetus. This fluid contains cells shed by the fetus, which can be cultured and analyzed to obtain a karyotype, providing information about the fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because chorionic villus sampling involves obtaining a sample of the chorionic villi from the placenta, not the amniotic fluid; umbilical cord blood sampling is typically used for other purposes like assessing the baby's blood for infections or genetic disorders; and ultrasound is a diagnostic imaging technique that does not involve the analysis of fetal cells for genetic information.
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