Nursing Elites

1. A male infant with a 2-day history of fever and diarrhea is brought to the clinic by his mother, who tells the nurse that the child refuses to drink anything. The nurse determines that the child has a weak cry with no tears. Which intervention is most important to implement?

• A. Provide a bottle of electrolyte solution.
• B. Infuse normal saline intravenously.
• C. Administer an antipyretic rectally.
• D. Apply an external cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Infusing normal saline intravenously is crucial to treat dehydration caused by fever and diarrhea. In this scenario, the infant's weak cry with no tears indicates severe dehydration, necessitating rapid fluid replacement via intravenous normal saline to restore fluid balance and prevent complications.

2. The client is admitted in active labor with a cervix that is 3 cm dilated, 50% effaced, and the presenting part at 0 station. An hour later, the client expresses the need to go to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Palpate the client’s bladder.
• B. Check the pH of the vaginal fluid.
• C. Review the fetal heart rate pattern.
• D. Determine cervical dilation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize determining cervical dilation as it helps in assessing the progress of labor and ensures it is safe for the client to move. Changes in cervical dilation may indicate the advancement of labor, warranting appropriate interventions or restrictions on movement to prevent complications. While checking the client's bladder may be important to ensure it's not distended, determining cervical dilation takes precedence in this scenario. Checking the pH of the vaginal fluid is not relevant in this situation, and reviewing the fetal heart rate pattern, although important, is not the first action to take when the client expresses the need to go to the bathroom.

3. During a routine prenatal health assessment for a client in her third trimester, the client reports that she had fluid leakage on her way to the appointment. Which technique should the nurse implement to evaluate the leakage?

• A. Insert a straight urinary catheter to drain the bladder.
• B. Scan the bladder for urinary retention.
• C. Palpate the suprapubic area for fetal head position.
• D. Test the fluid with a nitrazine strip.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Testing the fluid with a nitrazine strip is the appropriate technique to differentiate between amniotic fluid and urine. This test helps in determining if the fluid leakage is amniotic fluid, which is crucial for guiding further management and ensuring appropriate care for the client during the third trimester of pregnancy. Inserting a straight urinary catheter to drain the bladder (Choice A) is unnecessary and invasive in this scenario as the concern is fluid leakage, not urinary retention. Scanning the bladder for urinary retention (Choice B) is also not indicated since the client reported fluid leakage, not retention. Palpating the suprapubic area for fetal head position (Choice C) is unrelated to assessing fluid leakage and not the appropriate technique in this situation.

4. The nurse is caring for a female client, a primigravida with preeclampsia. Findings include +2 proteinuria, BP 172/112 mmHg, facial and hand swelling, complaints of blurry vision and a severe frontal headache. Which medication should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Clonidine hydrochloride
• B. Carbamazepine
• C. Furosemide
• D. Magnesium sulfate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, including hypertension, proteinuria, facial and hand swelling, visual disturbances, and a severe headache. The medication of choice for preventing seizures in preeclampsia is magnesium sulfate. This drug helps to prevent and control seizures in clients with preeclampsia, making it the most appropriate option for this client. Clonidine hydrochloride (Choice A) is an antihypertensive medication used for managing hypertension but is not the first-line treatment for preeclampsia. Carbamazepine (Choice B) is an anticonvulsant used for seizure disorders like epilepsy and is not indicated for preeclampsia. Furosemide (Choice C) is a diuretic used to manage fluid retention but is not the drug of choice for treating preeclampsia.

5. A laboring client’s membranes rupture spontaneously. The nurse notices that the amniotic fluid is greenish-brown. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Turn the client to her left side
• B. Contact the healthcare provider
• C. Assess the fetal heart rate
• D. Check the cervical dilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the fetal heart rate. When amniotic fluid is greenish-brown, it may indicate the presence of meconium, which can be concerning as it may lead to fetal distress. Assessing the fetal heart rate will help determine the well-being of the fetus and guide further actions to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.

Similar Questions