a pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit in reviewing her childbearing history the client indicates that she has delivered p
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Maternity HESI Quizlet

1. A pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit. In reviewing her childbearing history, the client indicates that she has delivered premature twins, one full-term baby, and has had no abortions. Which GTPAL should the LPN/LVN document in this client's record?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct GTPAL for this client is 3-1-1-0-3. G (Gravida) is 3, indicating a total of 3 pregnancies. T (Term) is 1, representing 1 full-term delivery. P (Preterm) is 1, not 2 as mentioned in the question, as twins count as one pregnancy event. A (Abortions) is 0, and L (Living) is 3, indicating 3 living children (twins count as 1). Therefore, the correct answer is 3-1-1-0-3.

2. After breastfeeding for 10 minutes at each breast, a new mother calls the nurse to the postpartum room to help change the newborn's diaper. As the mother begins the diaper change, the newborn spits up the breast milk. What action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a newborn spits up breast milk following feeding, the priority action for the nurse is to sit the newborn upright and burp by rubbing or patting the upper back. This position helps release trapped air and reduces the likelihood of further spit-up or aspiration. It is essential to address this first to prevent potential complications and ensure the newborn's comfort and safety.

3. To confirm respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in a newborn, what should the nurse assess?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To confirm respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in a newborn, the nurse should assess diaphragmatic breathing. In RDS, the baby may have difficulty breathing due to immature lungs, leading to shallow, rapid breathing movements. Assessing diaphragmatic breathing directly evaluates the respiratory effort and can help identify the presence of RDS. Choice B, assessing heart sounds, is not specific to diagnosing RDS but could be relevant for other conditions. Choice C, monitoring blood oxygen levels, is important but alone may not confirm RDS. Choice D, checking for signs of infection, is not a direct indicator of RDS but rather suggests a different issue.

4. When performing the daily head-to-toe assessment of a 1-day-old newborn, the nurse observes a yellow tint to the skin on the forehead, sternum, and abdomen. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presence of a yellow tint on the skin of a newborn suggests jaundice. The initial step in managing jaundice in a newborn is to measure bilirubin levels, typically done using transcutaneous bilirubinometry. This measurement helps determine the severity of jaundice and guides appropriate treatment interventions. Evaluating cord blood Coombs test results or reviewing maternal medical records for blood type and Rh factor are not the immediate actions indicated when jaundice is suspected. Phototherapy may be considered after confirming elevated bilirubin levels and assessing the need for treatment.

5. The nurse is measuring the frontal occipital circumference (FOC) of a 3-month-old infant, notes that the FOC has increased by 5 cm since birth, and observes that the child’s head appears large in relation to body size. Which action is most important for the nurse to take next?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Palpating the anterior fontanel for tension and bulging is essential to assess for increased intracranial pressure, which could be indicated by the enlarged head circumference. This assessment can help identify potential neurological issues that need prompt attention.

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