HESI RN
Maternity HESI Quizlet
1. A pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit. In reviewing her childbearing history, the client indicates that she has delivered premature twins, one full-term baby, and has had no abortions. Which GTPAL should the LPN/LVN document in this client's record?
- A. 3-1-2-0-3.
- B. 4-1-2-0-3.
- C. 2-1-2-1-2.
- D. 3-1-1-0-3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct GTPAL for this client is 3-1-1-0-3. G (Gravida) is 3, indicating a total of 3 pregnancies. T (Term) is 1, representing 1 full-term delivery. P (Preterm) is 1, not 2 as mentioned in the question, as twins count as one pregnancy event. A (Abortions) is 0, and L (Living) is 3, indicating 3 living children (twins count as 1). Therefore, the correct answer is 3-1-1-0-3.
2. A pregnant client receives Rho(D) immune globulin after an amniocentesis. The day following, she reports a temperature of 99.8°F (37.67°C). Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Schedule a visit with the healthcare provider today.
- B. Verify the compatibility of the administered Rho(D) immune globulin.
- C. Encourage the client to increase her intake of oral fluids.
- D. Instruct the client to maintain bedrest for 24 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A mild increase in temperature post-amniocentesis is common, and encouraging the client to increase oral fluid intake is the appropriate action. Increasing fluid intake can help reduce mild fever, promote recovery, and prevent dehydration. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on the importance of staying hydrated to support her overall well-being during this time.
3. A full-term, 24-hour-old infant in the nursery regurgitates and suddenly turns cyanotic. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Suction the oral and nasal passages.
- B. Give oxygen by positive pressure.
- C. Stimulate the infant to cry.
- D. Turn the infant onto the right side.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a situation where an infant regurgitates and turns cyanotic, the priority action should be to clear any potential airway obstruction. Suctioning the oral and nasal passages is crucial to ensure the infant's airway is clear and allow for proper breathing. This intervention takes precedence over providing oxygen, stimulating the infant to cry, or repositioning the infant.
4. After a client delivered vaginally 2 days ago, what information should you share with her if she wants to resume using her diaphragm for birth control?
- A. The diaphragm is the most effective form of contraception.
- B. The diaphragm must be refitted after childbirth.
- C. Vaseline lubricant should be used when inserting the diaphragm.
- D. The diaphragm should be inserted 2 to 4 hours before intercourse.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After childbirth, the diaphragm must be refitted to ensure a proper fit and effectiveness. Changes in the body post-delivery can affect the fit of the diaphragm, making it necessary to get refitted. Choice A is incorrect because while the diaphragm can be effective, it is not the most effective form of contraception. Choice C is incorrect because oil-based lubricants like Vaseline can damage latex diaphragms. Choice D is incorrect because the diaphragm should be inserted no more than 2 hours before intercourse, not 2 to 4 hours.
5. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?
- A. 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia.
- B. Periorbital edema, flashing lights, and aura.
- C. Epigastric pain in the third trimester.
- D. Recent decreased urinary output.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.
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