HESI RN
Maternity HESI Quizlet
1. A pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit. In reviewing her childbearing history, the client indicates that she has delivered premature twins, one full-term baby, and has had no abortions. Which GTPAL should the LPN/LVN document in this client's record?
- A. 3-1-2-0-3.
- B. 4-1-2-0-3.
- C. 2-1-2-1-2.
- D. 3-1-1-0-3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct GTPAL for this client is 3-1-1-0-3. G (Gravida) is 3, indicating a total of 3 pregnancies. T (Term) is 1, representing 1 full-term delivery. P (Preterm) is 1, not 2 as mentioned in the question, as twins count as one pregnancy event. A (Abortions) is 0, and L (Living) is 3, indicating 3 living children (twins count as 1). Therefore, the correct answer is 3-1-1-0-3.
2. A full-term infant is transferred to the nursery from labor and delivery. Which information is most important for the LPN/LVN to receive when planning immediate care for the newborn?
- A. Length of labor and method of delivery.
- B. Infant's condition at birth and treatment received.
- C. Feeding method chosen by the parents.
- D. History of drugs given to the mother during labor.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a full-term infant is transferred to the nursery, the most crucial information for the LPN/LVN to receive for immediate care planning is the infant's condition at birth and any treatments received. This data helps in determining the initial care needs and monitoring requirements for the newborn. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical as the infant's condition at birth and treatment received. The length of labor and method of delivery may provide background information but may not be as essential for immediate care planning. The feeding method chosen by the parents and the history of drugs given to the mother during labor are important but do not take precedence over knowing the infant's condition and treatment received.
3. Using Nägele's rule, what is the estimated date of delivery for a pregnant client who reports that the first day of her last menstrual period was August 2, 2006?
- A. April 25, 2007.
- B. May 9, 2007.
- C. May 29, 2007.
- D. June 2, 2007.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nägele's rule is used to estimate the date of delivery. It involves adding 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (August 2), which gives August 9. Then, subtracting 3 months from August 9, we arrive at May 9 of the following year as the estimated date of delivery. This makes choice B, 'May 9, 2007,' the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the correct calculation based on Nägele's rule.
4. The LPN/LVN assesses a client admitted to the labor and delivery unit and obtains the following data: dark red vaginal bleeding, uterus slightly tense between contractions, BP 110/68, FHR 110 beats/minute, cervix 1 cm dilated and uneffaced. Based on these assessment findings, what intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Insert an internal fetal monitor.
- B. Assess for cervical changes q1h.
- C. Monitor bleeding from IV sites.
- D. Perform Leopold's maneuvers.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring for bleeding from IV sites is the priority intervention in this situation. The dark red vaginal bleeding, uterine tension, and other assessment findings suggest a potential placental abruption. Monitoring bleeding from IV sites can help detect coagulopathy, which may be associated with placental abruption. Options A, B, and D are not the most appropriate interventions in this scenario. Inserting an internal fetal monitor, assessing for cervical changes, and performing Leopold's maneuvers are not the priority actions when dark red vaginal bleeding and uterine tension are present, indicating a potential emergency situation.
5. At 40 weeks gestation, a client presents to the obstetrical floor with spontaneous rupture of amniotic membranes at home and is in active labor. The client feels the need to bear down and push. What information is most important for the nurse to obtain first?
- A. Estimated amount of fluid.
- B. Any odor noted when membranes ruptured.
- C. Color and consistency of fluid.
- D. Time the membranes ruptured.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The color and consistency of the amniotic fluid are crucial to assess as they can provide valuable information about the presence of meconium, which may indicate fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to complications such as meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn. Therefore, assessing the color and consistency of the amniotic fluid is the priority in this situation to ensure timely interventions if needed. Estimated amount of fluid (Choice A) may be important but not as critical as assessing for meconium. Any odor noted when membranes ruptured (Choice B) is less relevant compared to assessing for meconium. Knowing the time the membranes ruptured (Choice D) is important but does not take precedence over assessing for fetal distress indicated by meconium presence.
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