Nursing Elites

1. A two-year-old child with heart failure is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit.
• B. Administer the scheduled dose.
• C. Calculate the safe dose range.
• D. Review the serum digoxin level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario as the heart rate of 128 bpm falls within the acceptable range for a two-year-old child with heart failure. It indicates that the child may benefit from the therapeutic effects of digoxin. Monitoring the heart rate closely after administration is essential to ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety. Determining the pulse deficit (Choice A) is not necessary in this situation as the heart rate is within the acceptable range. Calculating the safe dose range (Choice C) is not needed since the heart rate is already within the expected parameters. Reviewing the serum digoxin level (Choice D) is not the immediate action required in this case where the heart rate is within the normal range.

2. What age-appropriate play activity should the practical nurse suggest to the parents of a 7-month-old infant to encourage visual stimulation?

• A. Play peek-a-boo.
• B. Play pat-a-cake.
• C. Imitate animal sounds.
• D. Show how to clap hands.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The practical nurse should suggest playing peek-a-boo to the parents of a 7-month-old infant to encourage visual stimulation. Peek-a-boo is a suitable game for this age group as it helps develop visual tracking skills and the concept of object permanence. By covering and uncovering their face or a toy, the infant learns that things still exist even when they cannot be seen, promoting cognitive development and visual engagement.

3. A child with Graves' disease who is taking propranolol (Inderal) is seen in the clinic. The nurse should monitor the child for which therapeutic response?

• A. Increased weight gain
• B. Decreased heart rate
• C. Reduced headaches
• D. Diminished fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Decreased heart rate.' Propranolol is a beta-blocker commonly used to manage symptoms of hyperthyroidism, including tachycardia. Monitoring for a decreased heart rate is important as it indicates the drug's therapeutic response in controlling the elevated heart rate associated with Graves' disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, reduced headaches, and diminished fatigue are not typical therapeutic responses to propranolol in the context of managing Graves' disease.

4. A 6-month-old female is scheduled to receive diphtheria, tetanus toxoid, and acellular pertussis vaccine (DTaP) and IPV (inactivated poliovirus vaccine) immunizations. She is recovering from a cold but is otherwise healthy and afebrile. Her 5-year-old sister is receiving chemotherapy. Which considerations should the nurse make for this situation?

• A. DTaP and IPV can be safely given to the infant at the scheduled time.
• B. DTaP and IPV are contraindicated because the infant has a cold.
• C. IPV is contraindicated because her sister is immunocompromised.
• D. DTaP is contraindicated because her sister is immunocompromised.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: DTaP and IPV can be safely administered to a child with a mild illness like a cold, even if there is an immunocompromised family member, as these vaccines do not contain live viruses. It is important to ensure that the child is otherwise healthy and afebrile before administering the vaccines. The presence of a cold is not a contraindication for receiving DTaP and IPV vaccines. Choice A is correct because the infant can receive both vaccines as scheduled. Choice B is incorrect as having a cold does not contraindicate DTaP and IPV administration. Choice C is incorrect because IPV is not contraindicated due to the sister's immunocompromised status. Choice D is incorrect as both DTaP and IPV can be given in this scenario.

5. What information should the nurse provide to parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy who inquire about the disease and future children?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
• B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
• C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
• D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by mutations in the DMD gene on the X chromosome. This disorder primarily affects males because they have one X chromosome, inherited from their mothers, who may be carriers of the mutated gene. Females have two X chromosomes, providing a protective effect as the normal gene on one X chromosome can compensate for the mutated gene on the other. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which is why their son has the disease and why there is a risk of passing it on to future sons. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately implies that the lack of dystrophin in mothers impacts their sons' muscle groups. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a viral infection caused the muscle damage, which is not the case with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Choice D is incorrect as it attributes the muscle weakness to birth trauma instead of the genetic nature of the disorder.

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