Nursing Elites

1. The parents of a 15-month-old boy tell the nurse that they are concerned because their son brings his spoon to his mouth but does not turn it over. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Discuss the possibility of a referral to a specialist
• B. Question the parents about their concern
• C. Advise the parents on proper spoon handling techniques for the child
• D. Recommend extending mealtimes to allow the child to finish eating

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The initial action for the nurse is to question the parents about their concerns. By doing so, the nurse can gather more information to understand the situation better. This helps in determining if the child's behavior is within normal development or if further action or referrals are necessary. Choice A is incorrect as it jumps to a specialist referral without fully assessing the situation first. Choice C is also incorrect because assuming the parents need advice on proper spoon handling techniques may not be the case. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the core concern raised by the parents.

2. When instilling ear drops in a 2-year-old child, how should the practical nurse (PN) position the earlobe to straighten the external auditory canal?

• A. Up and back.
• B. Down and back.
• C. Up and forward.
• D. Down and forward.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering ear drops to a child under three years old, it is essential to pull the earlobe down and back. This positioning helps straighten the external auditory canal, facilitating the proper administration of the ear drops. Pulling the earlobe down and back in young children aims to ensure that the medication reaches the intended area for optimal effectiveness.

3. When caring for a child experiencing severe asthma symptoms, which medication should the practical nurse anticipate being administered first?

• A. Inhaled corticosteroids.
• B. Oral corticosteroids.
• C. Short-acting beta agonists.
• D. Leukotriene receptor antagonists.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the management of acute asthma exacerbations, the first-line medication for quick relief of bronchoconstriction is a short-acting beta agonist, such as albuterol. These medications help to rapidly open up the airways, providing immediate relief to the patient. Inhaled corticosteroids are more commonly used for long-term control of asthma symptoms, while oral corticosteroids and leukotriene receptor antagonists are often reserved for more severe or chronic cases. Therefore, in a child experiencing severe asthma symptoms, the practical nurse should anticipate the administration of short-acting beta agonists as the initial intervention to provide quick relief and improve breathing.

4. The parents of a 9-month-old infant are being educated about preventing iron deficiency anemia. Which statement by the parent indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will start giving my baby whole cow’s milk at 12 months
• B. I will give my baby iron-fortified cereal
• C. I will give my baby fruit juice between meals
• D. I will give my baby water with meals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I will give my baby iron-fortified cereal.' Iron-fortified cereal is an excellent source of iron for infants, aiding in the prevention of iron deficiency anemia. Choice A is incorrect as whole cow’s milk should not be introduced until the child is at least 12 months old to prevent iron deficiency. Choice C is incorrect because giving fruit juice between meals can interfere with iron absorption. Choice D is incorrect as giving water with meals can decrease nutrient intake. Therefore, the best choice to prevent iron deficiency anemia in a 9-month-old infant is to give them iron-fortified cereal.

5. An 8-year-old male client with nephrotic syndrome is receiving salt-poor human albumin IV. Which findings indicate to the nurse that the child is manifesting a therapeutic response?

• A. Decreased urinary output
• B. Decreased periorbital edema
• C. Increased periods of rest
• D. Weight gain of 0.5 kg/day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome treatment, decreased periorbital edema is a positive therapeutic response as it indicates a reduction in fluid retention. Periorbital edema is a common symptom of nephrotic syndrome due to fluid accumulation, so a decrease in this swelling signifies an improvement in the condition.

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