Nursing Elites

1. A 10-year-old child with hemophilia is admitted to the hospital with joint pain and swelling. What should the healthcare provider do first?

• A. Apply ice to the affected joint
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Elevate the affected limb
• D. Administer factor VIII as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering factor VIII as prescribed is the priority intervention for a child with hemophilia experiencing joint pain and swelling. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that impairs the blood's ability to clot properly, leading to prolonged bleeding. Factor VIII replacement therapy is essential as it helps restore the missing clotting factor in patients with hemophilia, thereby aiding in clot formation and preventing further bleeding. Applying ice, administering pain medication, or elevating the limb may be supportive measures but addressing the underlying cause by providing factor VIII therapy takes precedence in managing hemophilia-related joint pain and swelling.

2. When reviewing the dietary guidelines for a child with nephrotic syndrome, which diet should the practical nurse reinforce with the parents?

• A. High protein.
• B. Low sodium.
• C. Low fat.
• D. High carbohydrate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct diet that the practical nurse should reinforce with the parents of a child with nephrotic syndrome is a low-sodium diet. This diet is crucial for managing fluid retention and reducing the risk of edema, which are common concerns in children with nephrotic syndrome.

3. A 9-year-old child with a history of type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The nurse notes that the child's hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Increase the child’s insulin dose
• B. Review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique
• C. Discuss the possibility of switching to oral hypoglycemics
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment in three months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 8.5% indicates suboptimal diabetes control. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique. This approach can help identify potential areas for improvement and optimize diabetes management, aiming to lower the hemoglobin A1c levels towards the target range. Increasing the child’s insulin dose (Choice A) without addressing dietary habits and administration technique may not lead to better control and can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Switching to oral hypoglycemics (Choice C) is not appropriate for type 1 diabetes management. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in three months (Choice D) without intervening to improve diabetes control is not the best immediate action.

4. After observing a mother giving her 11-month-old ferrous sulfate followed by two ounces of orange juice, what should the nurse do next?

• A. Suggest placing the iron drops in the orange juice and feed the infant.
• B. Tell the mother to follow the iron drops with formula instead of orange juice.
• C. Instruct the mother to feed the infant nothing in the next 30 minutes after the iron.
• D. Give positive feedback about the way she administered the sulfate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Providing positive feedback to the mother for correctly administering the iron supplements is essential as it reinforces proper medication administration practices. This encouragement can help build the mother's confidence and ensure that she continues to administer the supplements correctly in the future, promoting the infant's health and well-being. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no need to suggest altering the administration method, changing the liquid used, or restricting feeding immediately after administering the iron supplement. Giving positive feedback is the most appropriate action in this scenario to acknowledge the mother's correct administration technique.

5. A 3-year-old child with a high fever and sore throat is brought to the clinic. The nurse observes that the child is drooling and has difficulty swallowing. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer antipyretic medication
• B. Prepare for emergency airway management
• C. Offer the child ice chips to suck on
• D. Assess the child’s hydration status

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a 3-year-old child with drooling, difficulty swallowing, high fever, and sore throat, the nurse should prioritize preparing for emergency airway management. These signs may indicate epiglottitis, a condition that can quickly obstruct the airway, leading to respiratory distress and potentially fatal outcomes if not managed promptly. Administering antipyretic medication (Choice A) may be necessary later but is not the priority. Offering ice chips (Choice C) is contraindicated as the child has difficulty swallowing. Assessing hydration status (Choice D) is important but not the priority when the airway is at risk.

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