Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) engages in repetitive hand washing that lasts for several hours. Which strategy should the nurse use to manage this behavior?

• A. Encourage the client to continue the behavior to alleviate anxiety.
• B. Establish a routine schedule for hand washing.
• C. Gradually reduce the amount of time spent on the behavior.
• D. Ignore the behavior as much as possible.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), it's crucial to gradually reduce the compulsive behavior to help the client learn to manage anxiety in a structured manner. Encouraging the client to continue the behavior (Choice A) would reinforce the cycle of compulsions. While establishing a routine schedule (Choice B) may provide some structure, it doesn't address the core issue of excessive hand washing. Ignoring the behavior (Choice D) may lead to worsening symptoms and does not help the client in managing their OCD effectively.

2. April, a 10-year-old admitted to inpatient pediatric care, has been getting more and more wound up and is losing self-control in the day room. Time-out does not appear to be an effective tool for April to engage in self-reflection. April’s mother admits to putting her in time-out up to 20 times a day. The nurse recognizes that:

• A. Time-out is an important part of April's baseline discipline.
• B. Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.
• C. April enjoys time-out and acts out to get some alone time.
• D. Time-out will need to be replaced with seclusion and restraint.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.' In this scenario, the excessive use of time-out, up to 20 times a day, indicates that it is no longer effective in helping April self-reflect and control her behavior. Constant use of time-out without achieving the desired outcome suggests the need for alternative therapeutic interventions. Choice A is incorrect because the situation described indicates that time-out is not serving its intended purpose. Choice C is also incorrect as the behavior is not driven by a desire for alone time. Choice D is incorrect and inappropriate as seclusion and restraint should only be considered as a last resort and are not indicated based on the information provided.

3. A male veteran who recently returned from a war zone has post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is admitted to the psychiatric ward due to admitted suicidal ideation. On admission, the client’s family informed the healthcare provider that therapy sessions did not seem to be helping. Select only one intervention that has the highest priority.

• A. Administer paroxetine 40 mg as prescribed.
• B. Develop a list of therapy programs.
• C. Remove all shaving equipment.
• D. Determine if the client has a suicide plan.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The highest priority intervention in this scenario is to ensure the safety of the client who is admitted due to suicidal ideation. Removing all shaving equipment is crucial to prevent self-harm or suicide attempts using sharp objects. Administering medication or developing a list of therapy programs can be important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Determining if the client has a suicide plan is also essential but not as urgent as removing potential means for self-harm.

4. During admission to the psychiatric unit, a female client is extremely anxious and states that she is worried about the sun coming up the next day. What intervention is most important for the RN to implement during the admission process?

• A. Assist the client in developing alternative coping skills.
• B. Remain calm and use a matter-of-fact approach.
• C. Ask the client why she is so anxious.
• D. Administer a PRN sedative to help relieve her anxiety.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During admission to a psychiatric unit, it is crucial for the registered nurse to remain calm and use a matter-of-fact approach when addressing a client who is extremely anxious. By staying composed and adopting a matter-of-fact demeanor, the nurse can help establish trust and promote a sense of calm in the client. This approach can also convey a sense of reassurance and stability, which can be beneficial in managing the client's anxiety. Assisting the client in developing alternative coping skills (Choice A) may be important in the long term but is not the most immediate priority during the admission process. Asking the client why she is anxious (Choice C) may not be helpful at this moment as the client may not be able to articulate the specific reasons due to her heightened anxiety. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice D) should not be the initial intervention as it does not address the underlying cause of the anxiety and should be considered only if other non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective.

5. An older male client with schizophrenia is found smearing feces on the bathroom walls of the chronic mental health unit where he resides. What action should the RN implement?

• A. Explain that the feces belong in the toilet.
• B. Show the client how to clean the walls.
• C. Escort the client out of the bathroom.
• D. Assist the client to clean the walls.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Escorting the client out of the bathroom is the most appropriate action to take in this situation. This helps prevent further inappropriate behavior and maintains hygiene, while avoiding reinforcement of the behavior. Option A, explaining that the feces belong in the toilet, may not be effective as the behavior is likely a manifestation of the client's condition rather than a lack of understanding. Option B, showing the client how to clean the walls, may not address the underlying issue and could potentially reinforce the behavior. Option D, assisting the client to clean the walls, may also reinforce the behavior and is not the best approach to managing the situation.

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