Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) engages in repetitive hand washing that lasts for several hours. Which strategy should the nurse use to manage this behavior?

• A. Encourage the client to continue the behavior to alleviate anxiety.
• B. Establish a routine schedule for hand washing.
• C. Gradually reduce the amount of time spent on the behavior.
• D. Ignore the behavior as much as possible.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), it's crucial to gradually reduce the compulsive behavior to help the client learn to manage anxiety in a structured manner. Encouraging the client to continue the behavior (Choice A) would reinforce the cycle of compulsions. While establishing a routine schedule (Choice B) may provide some structure, it doesn't address the core issue of excessive hand washing. Ignoring the behavior (Choice D) may lead to worsening symptoms and does not help the client in managing their OCD effectively.

2. A female client, who is wearing dirty clothes and has a foul body odor, comes to the clinic reporting feeling scared because she is being stalked. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Offer the client a safe place to relax before interviewing her.
• B. Ask the client to describe why she is being stalked.
• C. Recommend that the client talk with a social worker.
• D. Assure the client that the healthcare provider will see her today.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client presents with signs of distress and potential safety concerns, the priority is to provide a safe environment. Offering a safe place to relax can help the client feel secure and ready for further assessment and support. This action allows the nurse to establish rapport, ensure the client's immediate safety, and create a trusting relationship before delving into the details of the situation. Asking the client to describe why she is being stalked (Choice B) may exacerbate her distress and should come after ensuring her safety. Recommending that the client talk with a social worker (Choice C) is important but should follow immediate safety measures. Assuring the client that the healthcare provider will see her today (Choice D) is less critical than addressing her safety concerns and emotional state.

3. A client who is known to abuse drugs is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to a client who is exhibiting benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms?

• A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• B. Perphenazine (Trilafon)
• C. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
• D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is the correct choice for managing benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms. Benzodiazepines are drugs that can lead to physical dependence, and abrupt discontinuation can result in withdrawal symptoms. Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine itself, is often used in a controlled manner to taper off the drug gradually and manage withdrawal symptoms effectively. Choices A, Diphenhydramine, and B, Perphenazine, are not typically used to manage benzodiazepine withdrawal. Choice C, Isocarboxazid, is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used in the treatment of depression and not indicated for benzodiazepine withdrawal.

4. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is struggling with flashbacks and nightmares. Which therapeutic approach should the nurse include in the care plan?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy.
• B. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
• C. Medication management only.
• D. Relaxation training and mindfulness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) experiencing flashbacks and nightmares would benefit from cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) in the care plan. CBT is an evidence-based therapeutic approach that focuses on identifying and changing negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with PTSD symptoms. This helps the client learn coping strategies to manage distressing symptoms like flashbacks and nightmares.\nIncorrect Choices Rationale: B) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is not indicated for PTSD and is typically used for severe depression that has not responded to other treatments. C) Medication management alone may not address the underlying cognitive and behavioral aspects of PTSD. D) Relaxation training and mindfulness can be helpful as adjunctive therapies but may not be as effective as CBT in specifically targeting and modifying PTSD symptoms.

5. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

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