Nursing Elites

1. When preparing to administer a domestic violence screening tool to a female client, which statement should the RN provide?

• A. If you are experiencing abuse from your partner, I am required to ask you these questions.
• B. It is a requirement by law for me to inquire if you are a victim of domestic violence.
• C. Your healthcare provider must be informed if you are facing any domestic abuse.
• D. All clients undergo screening for domestic abuse due to its prevalence in our society.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because screening all clients for domestic abuse as a routine part of care helps in early identification and support. Choice A is incorrect as it may imply that the questions are only asked if abuse is already suspected. Choice B is incorrect because it emphasizes the legal obligation rather than the importance of routine screening. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on the healthcare provider's need rather than the benefit to the client of routine screening.

2. A client with anorexia nervosa has a body mass index (BMI) of 16.5 and has been diagnosed with bradycardia. Which of the following findings should the RN be most concerned about?

• A. Body temperature of 96.8°F.
• B. Heart rate of 52 BPM.
• C. Serum potassium level of 4.1 mEq/L.
• D. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with anorexia nervosa and bradycardia, monitoring for ECG changes is crucial as these changes may indicate potentially life-threatening cardiac complications. While other findings like low body temperature, bradycardia, and serum potassium levels are concerning, ECG changes specifically reflect the impact of bradycardia on the heart's electrical activity and should be the priority for the nurse to assess and address.

3. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?

• A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
• B. Administer a PRN sedative.
• C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.

4. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is exhibiting negative symptoms such as anhedonia and social withdrawal. Which intervention should be a priority for the nurse?

• A. Encourage participation in group activities.
• B. Administer prescribed antipsychotic medication.
• C. Assist the client in setting realistic goals.
• D. Promote engagement in social interactions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging participation in group activities is a priority intervention for a client with schizophrenia exhibiting negative symptoms like anhedonia and social withdrawal. Group activities provide structured social interactions and can help the client gradually re-engage with others, potentially reducing social withdrawal and improving social skills. Administering antipsychotic medication (Choice B) is essential in managing positive symptoms of schizophrenia such as hallucinations and delusions, not negative symptoms like anhedonia and social withdrawal. While assisting the client in setting realistic goals (Choice C) is important for overall care, addressing social withdrawal and anhedonia is more immediate. Promoting engagement in social interactions (Choice D) is beneficial, but encouraging participation in group activities provides a structured and supportive environment that can specifically target the negative symptoms being exhibited.

5. A client is being educated by a healthcare professional about initiating a prescribed abstinence therapy using Disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client acknowledge understanding?

• A. Admit to others that they are a substance abuser.
• B. Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours before taking the first dose.
• C. Attend monthly Alcoholics Anonymous meetings.
• D. Completely abstain from heroin or cocaine use.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: B: Before starting Disulfiram therapy, it is crucial for clients to be alcohol-free for a minimum of 12 hours to prevent adverse reactions. A: Admitting substance abuse is important, but it is not directly linked to the initiation of Disulfiram therapy. C: Attending Alcoholics Anonymous meetings is beneficial for support but not a specific requirement for starting Disulfiram. D: The focus of Disulfiram therapy is on alcohol abstinence, so abstaining from heroin or cocaine is not directly related to this medication.

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