when preparing to administer to domestic violence screening tool to a female client which statement should the rn provide
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Quizlet Mental Health HESI

1. When preparing to administer a domestic violence screening tool to a female client, which statement should the RN provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because screening all clients for domestic abuse as a routine part of care helps in early identification and support. Choice A is incorrect as it may imply that the questions are only asked if abuse is already suspected. Choice B is incorrect because it emphasizes the legal obligation rather than the importance of routine screening. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on the healthcare provider's need rather than the benefit to the client of routine screening.

2. A client with an eating disorder is being treated in a behavioral health unit. Which behavior would the nurse expect to see if the client is responding positively to the treatment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive response to treatment for a client with an eating disorder is indicated by adherence to the treatment plan and an increase in self-care activities. These behaviors show that the client is actively engaging in their treatment and taking steps towards recovery. Option B, increased isolation from others, is not indicative of a positive response to treatment as it may suggest withdrawal or avoidance. Option C, frequent complaining about treatment procedures, is not a behavior that signifies a positive response; it may indicate dissatisfaction or discomfort with the treatment. Option D, refusal to eat meals provided by the unit, is also not a positive response as it could suggest continued resistance to treatment and potential worsening of symptoms.

3. After surgery, a male client with antisocial personality disorder frequently requests a specific nurse be assigned to his care and becomes belligerent when another nurse is assigned. What action should the charge nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse is to advise the client that assignments are not based on client requests. Clients with antisocial personality disorder may attempt to manipulate situations to their advantage. By setting clear boundaries and explaining that assignments are not based on client preferences, the nurse helps prevent manipulation and maintains a professional approach to care. Reassuring the client about his requests (Choice A) may encourage the inappropriate behavior to continue. Asking the client to explain his requests (Choice C) may further fuel the manipulation by providing an opportunity for the client to justify his actions. Encouraging the client to verbalize feelings (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue of manipulating the assignment process and may inadvertently reinforce the behavior.

4. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse’s station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is experiencing a dystonic reaction due to dopamine depletion, which is a known side effect of Risperidone. Dystonia presents as abnormal muscle contractions and postures. The immediate management for this side effect is the administration of an anticholinergic medication like Benztropine (Cogentin). Choice A is incorrect as thioridazine is not the recommended medication for dystonic reactions. Choice B is incorrect as a hot pack would not effectively address the underlying cause of the dystonic reaction. Choice D is incorrect as occupational therapy is not the appropriate intervention for managing acute dystonia.

5. A client who has a history of bipolar disorder is recovering from a manic episode and is now experiencing depressive symptoms. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for suicidal ideation is the priority when a client with bipolar disorder is transitioning from a manic episode to a depressive phase. Suicidal ideation is a critical concern during depressive episodes, and ensuring the client's safety is the top priority. Providing a detailed schedule of daily activities (Choice B) may be helpful but is not the immediate priority over assessing for suicidal ideation. Discussing the importance of medication adherence (Choice C) and encouraging group therapy (Choice D) are essential components of care but are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the context of potential suicidal ideation.

Similar Questions

A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse’s station in a literally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?
A male client tells the RN that he does not want to take the atypical antipsychotic drug, olanzapine (Zyprexa), because of the side effects he experienced when he took it previously. Which statement is best for the RN to provide?
A client who recently experienced the death of a significant other arrives at the mental health center. The client reports loss of interest in usual activities, expresses a wish to be with the deceased significant other, has been eating very little, and has not slept in several days. Which client statement is most important for the RN to explore at this time?
A client with schizophrenia is exhibiting visual and auditory hallucinations. What should be the RN’s initial intervention?
What principle about patient-nurse communication should guide a nurse's fear of 'saying the wrong thing' to a patient?

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