Nursing Elites

1. A client is agitated and physically aggressive. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Calmly inform the client that they will be placed in seclusion if they do not calm down.
• B. Discuss with the client the reasons for their agitation and aggression.
• C. Tell the client that physical aggression is not acceptable and must stop.
• D. Seek assistance from other staff members and follow the facility’s protocol.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a situation where a client is agitated and physically aggressive, the priority for the RN is to ensure the safety of the client and others. Seeking assistance from other staff members is crucial as it allows for a prompt response to manage the situation effectively and according to the facility’s protocol. Choices A, B, and C do not address the immediate need for safety or involve the collaboration of other staff members, which is essential in handling aggressive behaviors in a healthcare setting.

2. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement for a male client with schizophrenia who is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit?

• A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
• B. Isolate the client from other clients.
• C. Administer a PRN sedative.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Echolalia, the constant repetition of what others are saying, can be disruptive to the therapeutic environment. The most appropriate intervention is to escort the client to his room. This action provides the client with a private space where he can engage in the behavior without disturbing other clients. Avoiding acknowledgment of the behavior (Choice A) may not address the issue and could lead to increased annoyance among other clients. Isolating the client (Choice B) may have negative psychological effects and should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for safety concerns. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be considered only as a last resort and if other de-escalation techniques have been unsuccessful.

3. A client with depression remains in bed most of the day and declines activities. Which nursing problem has the greatest priority for this client?

• A. Loss of interest in diversional activity.
• B. Social isolation.
• C. Refusal to address nutritional needs.
• D. Low self-esteem.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Refusal to address nutritional needs.' When a client with depression remains in bed and declines activities, addressing their refusal to address nutritional needs is of utmost priority. Nutritional needs are essential for physical health and overall well-being. Inadequate nutrition can worsen the client's physical health, impact their mood, and hinder the effectiveness of treatment. Option A, 'Loss of interest in diversional activity,' while important, is not as critical as addressing nutritional needs for immediate physical well-being. Option B, 'Social isolation,' is a significant concern but addressing nutritional needs takes precedence due to its direct impact on physical health. Option D, 'Low self-esteem,' is a valid concern but does not take priority over addressing the client's refusal to meet their nutritional needs for immediate health benefits.

4. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is struggling with flashbacks and nightmares. Which therapeutic approach should the nurse include in the care plan?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy.
• B. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
• C. Medication management only.
• D. Relaxation training and mindfulness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) experiencing flashbacks and nightmares would benefit from cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) in the care plan. CBT is an evidence-based therapeutic approach that focuses on identifying and changing negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with PTSD symptoms. This helps the client learn coping strategies to manage distressing symptoms like flashbacks and nightmares.\nIncorrect Choices Rationale: B) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is not indicated for PTSD and is typically used for severe depression that has not responded to other treatments. C) Medication management alone may not address the underlying cognitive and behavioral aspects of PTSD. D) Relaxation training and mindfulness can be helpful as adjunctive therapies but may not be as effective as CBT in specifically targeting and modifying PTSD symptoms.

5. A client who refuses antipsychotic medications disrupts group activities, talks with nonsensical words, and wanders into other clients' rooms. The nurse decides that the client needs constant observation based on which of these assessment findings?

• A. Wanders into clients' rooms.
• B. Refuses antipsychotic medication.
• C. Talks with nonsensical words.
• D. Disrupts group activities.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Disrupting group activities is a significant behavior that can pose risks to both the client and others. When combined with talking nonsensically and wandering into other clients' rooms, it indicates a need for constant observation to prevent harm or injury. Choices A, B, and C, although concerning, do not directly address the immediate safety concerns presented by disruptive behavior during group activities, which can lead to unpredictable situations and potential harm.

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