HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. A school nurse is called to the soccer field because a child has a nosebleed (epistaxis). In what position should the nurse place the child?
- A. Sitting up and leaning forward
- B. Lying flat with legs elevated
- C. Lying on the side with the head slightly raised
- D. Sitting up and tilting the head back
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The child with a nosebleed (epistaxis) should be placed in a sitting position, leaning forward, to prevent blood from flowing down the throat. This position helps to control the bleeding and prevents the child from swallowing blood, which can cause nausea or vomiting. Choice B is incorrect because elevating the legs is not recommended for nosebleeds. Choice C is incorrect because lying on the side with the head slightly raised is not the optimal position for managing a nosebleed. Choice D is incorrect because tilting the head back can lead to blood flowing down the throat and potentially cause aspiration.
2. A client with a tracheostomy is experiencing thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Encourage fluid intake to thin secretions.
- B. Administer a mucolytic agent.
- C. Increase humidity in the client's room.
- D. Perform deep suctioning as needed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increasing humidity in the client's room is the initial intervention for managing thick, tenacious secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Adequate humidity helps to hydrate secretions, making them easier to clear, thus improving airway clearance. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice A) can be beneficial but is not the first-line intervention. Administering a mucolytic agent (Choice B) may be considered if increasing humidity alone is insufficient. Performing deep suctioning (Choice D) should be reserved for when other measures like increasing humidity have been ineffective.
3. A client with a history of type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention is most important?
- A. Administer intravenous fluids as prescribed.
- B. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- C. Monitor the client's urine output.
- D. Check the client's blood glucose level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering insulin is the most important intervention in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin helps to reduce blood glucose levels and correct metabolic acidosis, which are critical in the treatment of DKA. While administering intravenous fluids is essential to manage dehydration, insulin takes precedence in treating the underlying cause of DKA. Monitoring urine output is important for assessing renal function but is not the primary intervention in managing DKA. Checking the client's blood glucose level is necessary, but administering insulin to reduce high blood glucose levels is the key priority in treating DKA.
4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Hemoglobin level
- C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- D. Serum sodium level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Prothrombin time (A) is used to calculate the INR and monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin level (B) is important but not the primary lab value to monitor when a client is on warfarin. Serum sodium level (D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which finding indicates the need for immediate intervention?
- A. Use of accessory muscles
- B. Oxygen saturation of 94%
- C. Carbon dioxide level of 45 mmHg
- D. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A carbon dioxide level of 45 mmHg is concerning in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen, as it may indicate carbon dioxide retention and requires immediate intervention. Options A, B, and D are not the priority findings in this scenario. While the use of accessory muscles, an oxygen saturation of 94%, and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute are important to monitor in a client with COPD, they do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like an elevated carbon dioxide level does.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access