a school nurse is called to the soccer field because a child has a nosebleed epistaxis in what position should the nurse place the child
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A school nurse is called to the soccer field because a child has a nosebleed (epistaxis). In what position should the nurse place the child?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The child with a nosebleed (epistaxis) should be placed in a sitting position, leaning forward, to prevent blood from flowing down the throat. This position helps to control the bleeding and prevents the child from swallowing blood, which can cause nausea or vomiting. Choice B is incorrect because elevating the legs is not recommended for nosebleeds. Choice C is incorrect because lying on the side with the head slightly raised is not the optimal position for managing a nosebleed. Choice D is incorrect because tilting the head back can lead to blood flowing down the throat and potentially cause aspiration.

2. A client with liver cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL is elevated and concerning in a client with liver cirrhosis, as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to cognitive impairment, altered mental status, and even coma. Serum albumin, bilirubin, and prothrombin time are also important markers in liver cirrhosis but are not as directly associated with the risk of hepatic encephalopathy as elevated ammonia levels.

3. The nurse teaches an adolescent male client how to use a metered dose inhaler. What instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for using a metered dose inhaler is to move the device one to two inches away from the mouth. This distance helps ensure effective delivery of the medication directly to the airways. Choice A is incorrect as the mouthpiece should be placed between the lips, not under the tongue. Choice B is incorrect because the device should be pressed down before breathing in, not after. Choice D is wrong because the patient should breathe out fully before using the inhaler, not while compressing the device.

4. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of nausea and a significant drop in blood pressure suggest a potential right ventricular infarction. The appropriate intervention for this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. This fluid resuscitation helps improve cardiac output by increasing preload, which can be beneficial in right ventricular infarction. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin may further lower blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the client has a pulse. Providing an antiemetic medication does not address the underlying issue of hypotension and potential right ventricular involvement.

5. For the past 24 hours, an antidiarrheal agent, diphenoxylate, has been administered to a bedridden, older client with infectious gastroenteritis. Which finding requires the nurse to take further action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tented skin turgor is a sign of dehydration, which can be exacerbated by the use of antidiarrheals in clients with gastroenteritis. In dehydration, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less resilient when pinched. Therefore, the nurse should take immediate action upon noticing tented skin turgor to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreased bowel sounds, persistent diarrhea, and dehydration are expected findings in a client with gastroenteritis who has been administered an antidiarrheal agent.

Similar Questions

What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide a client being discharged following treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome?
A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit, returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him 'feel bad'. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?
A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

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