Nursing Elites

1. A psychological contract exists between staff members and nurse managers. Which of the following best describes this relationship?

• A. Nurse managers provide positive evaluations, and in turn, staff members do what managers ask of them.
• B. Nurse managers coordinate multiple departments and supervise multiple staff members.
• C. Staff members do what managers ask of them and, in turn, are rewarded through assignments, promotions, and evaluations.
• D. Nurse managers advocate for staff and support nursing roles and ethical practice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In a psychological contract between staff members and nurse managers, staff members are expected to fulfill the requests of managers, and in return, they are rewarded with assignments, promotions, and evaluations. This reciprocal relationship forms the basis of the psychological contract. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately capture the essence of the psychological contract. While nurse managers may provide positive evaluations, coordinate departments, supervise staff, advocate for staff, and support nursing roles, these actions alone do not define the specific reciprocal nature of the psychological contract outlined in choice C.

2. A client with DM is scheduled to have surgery. The nurse should plan to:

• A. Give the client a regular diet as ordered.
• B. Hold the client's insulin on the morning of surgery.
• C. Monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period.
• D. Have the client stop taking insulin 48 hours before surgery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period. This is essential to ensure that the client's blood glucose levels remain within the target range and to prevent complications such as hypo- or hyperglycemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because giving a regular diet as ordered, holding insulin on the morning of surgery, or stopping insulin 48 hours before surgery can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels, posing risks to the client's safety during the surgical procedure.

3. A client with DM demonstrates acute anxiety when first admitted for the treatment of hyperglycemia. The most appropriate intervention to decrease the client's anxiety would be to:

• A. Administer a sedative
• B. Make sure the client knows all the correct medical terms to understand what is happening.
• C. Ignore the signs and symptoms of anxiety so that they will soon disappear.
• D. Convey empathy, trust, and respect toward the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Conveying empathy, trust, and respect can help reduce the client's anxiety and improve their overall experience during treatment. This approach creates a supportive environment and fosters a sense of safety and understanding for the client. Administering a sedative (Choice A) should not be the initial intervention for anxiety, as it does not address the underlying emotional needs of the client. Making sure the client knows all the correct medical terms (Choice B) may increase anxiety by overwhelming the client with technical information. Ignoring signs and symptoms of anxiety (Choice C) can lead to worsening distress and potential complications in the client's care.

4. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?

• A. Oral anticoagulants
• B. Anabolic steroids
• C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
• D. Thiazide diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.

5. A healthcare professional caring for a client who has been receiving intravenous diuretics suspects that the client is experiencing a deficient fluid volume. Which assessment finding would the healthcare professional note in a client with this condition?

• A. Lung congestion
• B. Decreased hematocrit
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Decreased central venous pressure (CVP)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Decreased central venous pressure (CVP) is the correct assessment finding in a client with deficient fluid volume. This is because a decrease in CVP indicates reduced blood volume returning to the heart, which is consistent with hypovolemia. Lung congestion (Choice A) would be more indicative of fluid volume excess, not deficiency. Decreased hematocrit (Choice B) may be seen in conditions such as anemia but is not specific to deficient fluid volume. Increased blood pressure (Choice C) is not typically associated with deficient fluid volume; in fact, hypovolemia often leads to decreased blood pressure.

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