Nursing Elites

1. A psychological contract exists between staff members and nurse managers. Which of the following best describes this relationship?

• A. Nurse managers provide positive evaluations, and in turn, staff members do what managers ask of them.
• B. Nurse managers coordinate multiple departments and supervise multiple staff members.
• C. Staff members do what managers ask of them and, in turn, are rewarded through assignments, promotions, and evaluations.
• D. Nurse managers advocate for staff and support nursing roles and ethical practice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In a psychological contract between staff members and nurse managers, staff members are expected to fulfill the requests of managers, and in return, they are rewarded with assignments, promotions, and evaluations. This reciprocal relationship forms the basis of the psychological contract. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately capture the essence of the psychological contract. While nurse managers may provide positive evaluations, coordinate departments, supervise staff, advocate for staff, and support nursing roles, these actions alone do not define the specific reciprocal nature of the psychological contract outlined in choice C.

2. Which of the following describes an effective method of communication?

• A. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and areas for improvement.
• B. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to explain departmental policies.
• C. A unit manager meets with staff after several safety events to introduce new policies aimed at preventing further safety events.
• D. A unit manager describes safety events that have occurred on the unit to another nurse manager and discusses ideas for policy improvement with the other manager.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it describes an effective method of communication where a unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and areas for improvement. This approach fosters open dialogue, provides constructive feedback, and promotes professional growth. Choice B is incorrect as it only involves the explanation of departmental policies without engaging in a two-way communication process. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on policy introduction after safety events rather than individual feedback. Choice D is incorrect as it involves discussing safety events with another manager and policy improvement, but it does not directly address individual performance feedback, which is essential for effective communication and professional development.

3. A client at risk for hypokalemia is being instructed by a nurse about foods high in potassium that should be included in the daily diet. The nurse determines that the client understands the food sources of potassium if the client states that the food item lowest in potassium is:

• A. Apples
• B. Carrots
• C. Spinach
• D. Avocado

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Apples.' Apples are the lowest in potassium among the given options. Carrots, spinach, and avocados are all higher in potassium content compared to apples. Carrots and spinach are vegetables known to have a moderate amount of potassium. Avocados, on the other hand, are a high-potassium fruit and would not be the lowest in potassium among the choices provided.

4. Jemma, who weighs 210 lb (95 kg) and has been diagnosed with hyperglycemia tells the nurse that her husband sleeps in another room because her snoring keeps him awake. The nurse notices that she has large hands and a hoarse voice. Which of the following would the nurse suspect as a possible cause of the client's hyperglycemia?

• A. Acromegaly
• B. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• C. Hypothyroidism
• D. Deficient growth hormone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Acromegaly. Jemma's symptoms of large hands, hoarse voice, and snoring are indicative of acromegaly, a disorder caused by excessive growth hormone production. Acromegaly can lead to insulin resistance, which can result in hyperglycemia. Choice B, Type 1 diabetes mellitus, is unlikely in this case as the symptoms and presentation are more suggestive of acromegaly. Choice C, Hypothyroidism, typically presents with different symptoms such as weight gain, fatigue, and cold intolerance, not consistent with Jemma's symptoms. Choice D, Deficient growth hormone, would not lead to the signs and symptoms observed in Jemma, as her condition is characterized by excessive growth hormone production.

5. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

Similar Questions