a male client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone siadh which nursing intervention is appropriate
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Leadership HESI Quizlet

1. A male client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a male client with SIADH is to restrict fluids. In SIADH, there is excess release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Restricting fluids helps prevent further dilutional hyponatremia by reducing water intake. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly (choice A) would worsen the condition by adding more fluids, encouraging increased oral intake (choice B) is contraindicated as it adds more fluids, and administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids (choice D) is not a standard treatment for SIADH.

2. Which of the following ethical principles is demonstrated when a nurse provides truthful information to a patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Veracity. Veracity is the ethical principle of truthfulness and honesty in communication. When a nurse provides truthful information to a patient, it demonstrates integrity and respect for the patient's right to know the truth about their health condition and treatment. Choice B, Autonomy, refers to respecting the patient's right to make their own decisions. Choice C, Justice, involves fairness and equality in healthcare decisions. Choice D, Nonmaleficence, relates to the obligation to do no harm and prevent harm to the patient.

3. The patient expects that a type 1 diabetic may receive ____ of their morning dose of insulin preoperatively:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is common practice to administer 25-40% of the morning dose of insulin preoperatively to prevent hypoglycemia during surgery. Giving a lower percentage (A) may not provide sufficient glycemic control, while higher percentages (C, D) can increase the risk of hypoglycemia during the surgical procedure.

4. A client with Graves' disease is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that the purpose of this medication is to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Alleviate symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that helps manage symptoms like tachycardia (fast heart rate) and tremors in patients with Graves' disease. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol does not address the underlying cause of Graves' disease, which is autoimmune in nature. Choice B is incorrect because propranolol does not directly reduce thyroid hormone production; it mainly targets the symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while propranolol may help with symptoms like tachycardia, it is not intended to increase energy levels.

5. A client with DM is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action when a client with DM is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia is to check the client's blood glucose level. This step is crucial to confirm hypoglycemia before initiating any treatment. Giving the client orange juice (Choice A) is a common intervention for treating hypoglycemia, but it should not be done before confirming the blood glucose level. Administering insulin (Choice B) is not appropriate for hypoglycemia as it would further decrease the blood glucose levels. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be important, but the immediate priority is to assess the blood glucose level to guide treatment.

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