a male client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone siadh which nursing intervention is appropriate
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Leadership HESI Quizlet

1. A male client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a male client with SIADH is to restrict fluids. In SIADH, there is excess release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Restricting fluids helps prevent further dilutional hyponatremia by reducing water intake. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly (choice A) would worsen the condition by adding more fluids, encouraging increased oral intake (choice B) is contraindicated as it adds more fluids, and administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids (choice D) is not a standard treatment for SIADH.

2. A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client with DM who has hyperglycemia. The priority nursing diagnosis would be:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) experiencing hyperglycemia would be 'High risk for deficient fluid volume.' Hyperglycemia can lead to osmotic diuresis, causing significant fluid loss and an increased risk of deficient fluid volume. This nursing diagnosis addresses the immediate physiological concern related to fluid balance.\n\nChoice B, 'Deficient knowledge: disease process and treatment,' focuses on the client's understanding of DM, which is important but not the priority when the client is at risk of fluid volume deficit.\n\nChoice C, 'Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements,' pertains to inadequate intake of nutrients, which is not the priority concern when fluid volume deficit poses a more immediate threat.\n\nChoice D, 'Disabled family coping: compromised,' addresses a psychosocial aspect and is not the priority over the critical physiological issue of fluid volume deficit in a client with hyperglycemia.

3. What is the lowest fasting plasma glucose level suggestive of a diagnosis of DM?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A fasting plasma glucose level of 126 mg/dl or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. Choice A (90 mg/dl) is too low to indicate diabetes. Choice B (115 mg/dl) is also below the diagnostic threshold for diabetes. Choice D (180 mg/dl) is above the diagnostic threshold and would indicate uncontrolled diabetes, not the lowest level suggestive of a diagnosis.

4. The client is NPO and is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a subclavian line. Which precautions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Precautions for clients receiving TPN include placing the solution on an IV pump to control the rate, monitoring blood glucose levels to detect hyperglycemia, and monitoring intake and output to assess fluid balance. Changing the IV tubing every three days is not a standard precaution for clients receiving TPN via a subclavian line.

5. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

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