Nursing Elites

1. A male client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

• A. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered
• B. Encouraging increased oral intake
• C. Restricting fluids
• D. Administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids as ordered

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a male client with SIADH is to restrict fluids. In SIADH, there is excess release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Restricting fluids helps prevent further dilutional hyponatremia by reducing water intake. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly (choice A) would worsen the condition by adding more fluids, encouraging increased oral intake (choice B) is contraindicated as it adds more fluids, and administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids (choice D) is not a standard treatment for SIADH.

2. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

3. Which advice is most beneficial for a new nurse manager?

• A. Strive to embody the manager your staff desires while also aligning with your administration's expectations.
• B. Keep in mind that it may take 6 months to feel at ease in a new role.
• C. Begin by mentoring other novice nurse managers.
• D. Participate in substantial personal growth endeavors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most helpful advice for a new nurse manager is to understand that it can take up to 6 months to feel comfortable in a new position. This allows the individual to manage their expectations and give themselves time to adapt to their new role. Choice A may be overwhelming and could cause conflicting priorities for the new nurse manager. Choice C, while valuable, might not be the immediate focus for someone new to the role. Choice D, although important, may not be as time-sensitive as the adjustment period in the new position.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous insulin
• B. Start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline
• C. Monitor serum potassium levels
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention in the treatment of a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline. This is essential for fluid resuscitation to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion. Administering intravenous insulin can lead to further potassium depletion without first addressing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring serum potassium levels is important but should follow fluid resuscitation to avoid life-threatening hypokalemia. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) is necessary to assess the acid-base status but is not the initial priority when managing DKA.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with myxedema coma. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Administer intravenous fluids
• B. Provide a warming blanket
• C. Administer levothyroxine intravenously
• D. Place the client in Trendelenburg position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In myxedema coma, the priority intervention is to administer levothyroxine intravenously. Myxedema coma is a severe form of hypothyroidism, and intravenous levothyroxine is crucial to rapidly replace deficient thyroid hormones. Administering intravenous fluids (choice A) may be necessary, but levothyroxine takes precedence. Providing a warming blanket (choice B) can help maintain the client's body temperature, but it does not address the underlying thyroid hormone deficiency. Placing the client in Trendelenburg position (choice D) is not indicated and can potentially worsen the client's condition.

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