Nursing Elites

1. A male client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

• A. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered
• B. Encouraging increased oral intake
• C. Restricting fluids
• D. Administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids as ordered

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a male client with SIADH is to restrict fluids. In SIADH, there is excess release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Restricting fluids helps prevent further dilutional hyponatremia by reducing water intake. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly (choice A) would worsen the condition by adding more fluids, encouraging increased oral intake (choice B) is contraindicated as it adds more fluids, and administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids (choice D) is not a standard treatment for SIADH.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following laboratory findings is most consistent with this condition?

• A. Increased serum sodium
• B. Decreased urine specific gravity
• C. Decreased serum osmolality
• D. Increased serum potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased serum osmolality. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. The dilution of sodium results in decreased serum osmolality. Option A is incorrect because SIADH causes hyponatremia, resulting in decreased serum sodium levels. Option B is incorrect because SIADH leads to concentrated urine with increased urine specific gravity. Option D is incorrect as SIADH does not typically affect serum potassium levels.

3. The patient expects that a type 1 diabetic may receive ____ of their morning dose of insulin preoperatively:

• A. 10-20%.
• B. 25-40%.
• C. 50-60%.
• D. 85-90%.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is common practice to administer 25-40% of the morning dose of insulin preoperatively to prevent hypoglycemia during surgery. Giving a lower percentage (A) may not provide sufficient glycemic control, while higher percentages (C, D) can increase the risk of hypoglycemia during the surgical procedure.

4. A client with DM is taking regular and NPH insulin every morning. The nurse should provide which instruction to the client?

• A. Take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin.
• B. Take the NPH insulin first, then the regular insulin.
• C. Mix the insulins in a separate syringe.
• D. Take the regular insulin first and immediately follow it with the NPH insulin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the client is to take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin. Regular insulin should be administered before NPH insulin to prevent contamination and maintain the potency of each insulin type. Choice B is incorrect because NPH insulin should not be taken before regular insulin. Mixing the insulins in a separate syringe, as suggested in choice C, is not recommended as it may alter the effectiveness of the insulins. Choice D is also incorrect as taking the regular insulin first and immediately following it with NPH insulin is not the recommended administration sequence.

5. In a 29-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing's syndrome, nurse Lyzette would expect a decline in:

• A. Serum glucose level.
• B. Hair loss.
• C. Bone mineralization.
• D. Menstrual flow.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production which can lead to hyperglycemia. Successful treatment of Cushing's syndrome aims to normalize cortisol levels, resulting in a decline in serum glucose levels. Choice B, hair loss, is not specifically associated with Cushing's syndrome or its treatment. Choice C, bone mineralization, is often compromised in Cushing's syndrome due to the effects of excess cortisol on bones; however, successful treatment would aim to improve bone health rather than decline it. Choice D, menstrual flow, is not directly linked to Cushing's syndrome or its treatment, so a decline in menstrual flow would not be an expected outcome of successful treatment.

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