Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a male client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus how diet and exercise affect insulin requirements, Nurse Joy should include which guideline?

• A. You'll need more insulin when you exercise or increase your food intake.
• B. You'll need less insulin when you exercise or reduce your food intake.
• C. You'll need less insulin when you increase your food intake.
• D. You'll need more insulin when you exercise or decrease your food intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a person with type 1 diabetes exercises, it typically lowers blood glucose levels. As a result, insulin needs are reduced when exercise or food intake is decreased. Choice A is incorrect because more insulin is not typically needed when exercise or food intake is increased. Choice C is incorrect because increasing food intake would generally require more insulin to cover the additional glucose from the food. Choice D is incorrect as decreasing food intake usually leads to a lower need for insulin.

2. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus is being educated on the importance of foot care. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Soak your feet daily to maintain cleanliness.
• B. Wear tight-fitting shoes to protect your feet.
• C. Apply lotion between your toes to prevent dryness.
• D. Inspect your feet daily for any cuts or sores.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to inspect their feet daily for any cuts or sores. This is crucial for individuals with diabetes as they are at a higher risk of developing foot problems. Soaking feet daily can lead to skin breakdown and infections, making choice A incorrect. Tight-fitting shoes can cause pressure points and increase the risk of foot injuries, so choice B is incorrect. Applying lotion between the toes can create a moist environment, increasing the risk of fungal infections, making choice C incorrect.

4. Nurse Ruth is assessing a client after a thyroidectomy. The assessment reveals muscle twitching and tingling, along with numbness in the fingers, toes, and mouth area. The nurse should suspect which complication?

• A. Tetany
• B. Hemorrhage
• C. Thyroid storm
• D. Laryngeal nerve damage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Tetany.' Tetany is characterized by muscle twitching, tingling, and numbness, which are indicative of hypocalcemia. After a thyroidectomy, accidental removal or damage to the parathyroid glands can lead to decreased calcium levels, resulting in tetany. Choice B, 'Hemorrhage,' is incorrect as it typically presents with symptoms such as sudden swelling, increased pain, or drop in blood pressure. Choice C, 'Thyroid storm,' is incorrect as it involves a sudden exacerbation of hyperthyroidism, leading to symptoms like fever, tachycardia, and confusion. Choice D, 'Laryngeal nerve damage,' is incorrect as it would manifest with voice changes, difficulty swallowing, or respiratory distress, not the symptoms described in the scenario.

5. The client has received IV solutions for three (3) days through a 20-gauge IV catheter placed in the left cephalic vein. On morning rounds, the nurse notes the IV site is tender to palpation and a red streak has formed. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Start a new IV in the right hand.
• B. Discontinue the intravenous line.
• C. Complete an incident record.
• D. Place a warm washcloth over the site.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first action should be to discontinue the intravenous line to prevent further complications such as infection or thrombophlebitis. Starting a new IV in the right hand is not the priority as addressing the current issue is important. Completing an incident record can be done after addressing the immediate concern of the IV site. Placing a warm washcloth over the site does not address the red streak and tenderness, which may indicate an infection that requires discontinuation of the IV line.

Similar Questions