a client admitted to the hospital for depression is escorted to a private room prior to leaving the room what intervention is most important for the n
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1

1. A client admitted to the hospital for depression is escorted to a private room. Prior to leaving the room, what intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Searching personal belongings is essential to ensure the safety of the client by preventing access to items that could be used for self-harm. While explaining the program's guidelines (Choice A) and initiating a psychosocial assessment (Choice C) are important aspects of care, the immediate concern in this situation is the safety of the client. Reviewing the healthcare provider's prescription (Choice D) is important for providing appropriate treatment but is not as urgent as ensuring the client's safety.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer the 0800 dose of 20 units of Humulin R to an 8-year-old girl diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes. The mother comments that her daughter is a very picky eater and many times does not eat meals. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the girl if she will be eating her breakfast this morning. This is important to determine if the child will be consuming food, which is crucial information before administering insulin. If the child does not plan to eat, administering the full dose of insulin may lead to hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as administering the insulin without knowing if the child will eat can be dangerous. Choice C is not the first intervention because the immediate concern is the child's meal intake. Choice D, while important, is not the first step in this situation.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central venous catheter. Which assessment finding indicates a complication related to the TPN?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours is concerning as it indicates fluid retention, a potential complication of TPN leading to fluid overload. Elevated blood glucose levels (Choice A) are expected in TPN, serum potassium levels (Choice B) are within the normal range, and a white blood cell count (Choice D) of 7000/mm3 is also normal. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it suggests a complication related to TPN.

4. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which intervention should the nurse include to manage the client's nausea?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering an antiemetic before meals is a crucial intervention to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea. Antiemetics are medications specifically designed to prevent or relieve nausea and vomiting. By administering the antiemetic before meals, the nurse can help prevent the onset of nausea, allowing the client to eat more comfortably. Providing frequent mouth care (Choice B) is important for maintaining oral hygiene but does not directly address nausea. Encouraging small, frequent meals (Choice C) and offering clear liquids (Choice D) are generally recommended for clients experiencing nausea, but administering an antiemetic is a more targeted approach to specifically address and manage the symptom.

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