Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes a diet high in vitamin C for a client with a leg wound. Which food should the nurse encourage the client to eat?

• A. Bananas and pineapple
• B. Cottage cheese and crackers
• C. Peanut butter and jelly
• D. Tomato and lettuce salad

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tomatoes and lettuce are high in vitamin C, making them suitable choices for a diet prescribed for wound healing. Bananas and pineapple (Choice A) are not particularly high in vitamin C compared to tomatoes and lettuce. Cottage cheese and crackers (Choice B) as well as peanut butter and jelly (Choice C) do not provide significant amounts of vitamin C, which is essential for wound healing.

2. The nurse offers diet teaching to a female college student who was diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia following her voluntary adoption of a lacto-vegetarian diet. What nutrients should the nurse suggest this client eat to best meet her nutritional needs while allowing her to adhere to a lacto-vegetarian diet?

• A. Drink whole milk instead of skim milk to enhance the body's production of amino acids
• B. Take vitamin K 10mg PO daily to enhance production of red blood cells
• C. Increase amounts of dark yellow vegetables such as carrots to fortify iron stores
• D. Combine several legumes and grains such as beans and rice to form complete proteins

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Combining legumes and grains ensures the client receives all essential amino acids to form complete proteins, which is crucial in a vegetarian diet. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Option A is not necessary as there are plant-based sources of essential amino acids in a lacto-vegetarian diet. Option B suggests vitamin K, which is not directly related to enhancing red blood cell production. Option C mentions increasing dark yellow vegetables, which are sources of non-heme iron, but combining legumes and grains is more effective in addressing the protein needs of a lacto-vegetarian.

3. The nurse is caring for a laboring 22-year-old primigravida following administration of regional anesthesia. In planning care for this client, what nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach
• B. Teaching the client how to push effectively to decrease the length of the second stage of labor
• C. Timing and recording uterine contractions
• D. Positioning the client for proper distribution of anesthesia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention for a laboring client following administration of regional anesthesia is to ensure safety by raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach. This is crucial to prevent falls and to ensure that the client can call for assistance if needed. Teaching the client how to push effectively (Choice B) is important but not the highest priority at this moment. Timing and recording uterine contractions (Choice C) are essential but not as immediate as ensuring safety post-anesthesia. Positioning the client for proper distribution of anesthesia (Choice D) is important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence in this situation.

4. The nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving radiation therapy for breast cancer. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include?

• A. Encourage the client to use sunscreen
• B. Apply lotion to the radiated area
• C. Keep the area dry and clean
• D. Encourage the client to exercise the arm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Keeping the radiated area dry and clean is crucial to prevent skin irritation and infection. Radiation therapy can cause skin changes, making it susceptible to irritation and infection. Using sunscreen (Choice A) is not usually recommended on the radiated area as it can further irritate the skin. Applying lotion (Choice B) may not be suitable as it can trap moisture and cause skin breakdown. While encouraging exercise (Choice D) is important, keeping the area dry and clean takes precedence to prevent complications during radiation therapy.

5. The nurse preceptor is orienting a new graduate nurse to the critical care unit. The preceptor asks the new graduate to state symptoms that most likely indicate the beginning of a shock state in a critically ill client. What findings should the new graduate nurse identify?

• A. Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output
• B. Warm skin, hypertension, and constricted pupils
• C. Bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory acidosis
• D. Mottled skin, tachypnea, and hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output are early signs of shock. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain perfusion, mental status changes can indicate decreased cerebral perfusion, and low urine output reflects poor renal perfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Warm skin, hypertension, and constricted pupils are not typical findings in the early stages of shock. Bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory acidosis are more indicative of late-stage shock. Mottled skin, tachypnea, and hyperactive bowel sounds can be seen in various conditions but are not specific early signs of shock.

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