HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. An 11-year-old client admitted to the mental health unit after threatening self-harm. What is the best activity to establish rapport and promote coping?
- A. Bring the client to the team meeting to discuss the treatment plan.
- B. Play a board game with the client and start discussing stressors.
- C. Explain the purpose of each medication the client is taking.
- D. Ask the client to write feelings in a journal and review together.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Playing a board game with the client is an effective way to establish rapport in a relaxed setting, allowing the client to open up about stressors. This activity promotes coping by creating a safe and engaging environment for the client to express their feelings. Choices A, C, and D may not be suitable initially as they involve more formal or intrusive approaches that may not be suitable for building rapport with a client experiencing emotional distress.
2. While assessing an older client's fall risk, the client reports living at home alone and never falling. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Suggest moving to an assisted living facility
- B. Continue to obtain client data needed to complete the fall risk survey
- C. Reduce the frequency of fall risk assessments for this client
- D. Confirm that the client is safe living alone
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to continue obtaining client data to complete the fall risk survey. Even though the client reports never falling, it is essential to assess all fall risk factors comprehensively. Fall risk surveys provide valuable information on mobility, vision, medications, and other factors that can impact safety. Option A is incorrect because suggesting moving to an assisted living facility is premature without completing the fall risk assessment. Option C is incorrect as reducing the frequency of fall risk assessments could overlook potential risk factors. Option D is incorrect as the client's statement alone is not enough to confirm their safety living alone; a thorough assessment is necessary.
3. A client with a seizure disorder is prescribed phenytoin. What is the most important teaching the nurse should provide?
- A. Take phenytoin with antacids to reduce stomach upset.
- B. Maintain a consistent dosing schedule to prevent seizures.
- C. Monitor for excessive drowsiness and dizziness.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime to reduce seizure risk.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important teaching the nurse should provide to a client prescribed phenytoin is to maintain a consistent dosing schedule to prevent seizures. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug, and missing doses can increase the risk of seizures. Option A is incorrect because antacids can interact with phenytoin and reduce its absorption. Option C is important but not the most critical teaching as compared to maintaining a consistent dosing schedule. Option D is incorrect because the timing of phenytoin administration should be consistent rather than specifically at bedtime.
4. A client receiving chemotherapy reports severe nausea. What should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
- B. Offer the client small, frequent meals.
- C. Provide the client with crackers and water.
- D. Encourage the client to eat a bland diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer an antiemetic as prescribed. When a client receiving chemotherapy reports severe nausea, the priority action is to administer an antiemetic medication as prescribed. Antiemetics help alleviate nausea and prevent complications associated with chemotherapy, such as dehydration and malnutrition. Options B, C, and D focus on dietary interventions which can be helpful but addressing the severe nausea with antiemetic medication takes precedence to provide immediate relief and ensure the client's comfort and well-being.
5. A nurse assesses a young adult in the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following neurological signs is of most concern?
- A. Flaccid paralysis
- B. Pupils fixed and dilated
- C. Diminished spinal reflexes
- D. Reduced sensory responses
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fixed, dilated pupils are a sign of increased intracranial pressure or brain injury, indicating a potentially serious neurological condition. Flaccid paralysis, although concerning, may not always indicate immediate life-threatening issues. Diminished spinal reflexes and reduced sensory responses are important neurological assessments but are not as acutely concerning as fixed, dilated pupils in this context.
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