a patient with renal failure has been taking aluminum hydroxidemagnesium hydroxide suspension maalox at home for indigestion the patient arrives for o
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Adult Health 1 HESI

1. A patient with renal failure has been taking aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide suspension (Maalox) at home for indigestion. The patient arrives for outpatient hemodialysis and is unresponsive to questions and has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Which action should the dialysis nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The health care provider should be notified immediately. The patient has a history and manifestations consistent with hypermagnesemia. The nurse should check the chart for a recent serum magnesium level and make sure that blood is sent to the laboratory for immediate electrolyte and chemistry determinations. Dialysis should correct the high magnesium levels. The patient needs teaching about the risks of taking magnesium-containing antacids. Monitoring of potassium levels also is important for patients with renal failure, but the patient’s current symptoms are not consistent with hyperkalemia.

2. The father of an 11-year-old client reports to the nurse that the client has been wetting the bed since the passing of his mother and is concerned. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: It is common for children to experience bedwetting as a response to severe trauma, such as losing a parent. Referring the father and the client to a psychologist is crucial in this situation to help the child cope with the loss and address any underlying emotional issues. Choice A is incorrect as bedwetting in this context is likely related to the trauma rather than puberty. Choice B is incorrect as nocturnal emissions are not abnormal and do not relate to bedwetting. Choice C is incorrect because the focus should be on addressing the emotional impact of the trauma rather than specifically discussing bedwetting.

3. A female client's significant other has been at her bedside providing reassurances and support for the past 3 days, as desired by the client. The client's estranged husband arrives and demands that the significant other not be allowed to visit or be given condition updates. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, where there is a conflict between the client's significant other and estranged husband, the most appropriate intervention is to request a consultation with the ethics committee for resolution. This ensures that an impartial body can assess the situation, consider the rights and preferences of all parties involved, and provide guidance on how to proceed in a fair and ethical manner. Obtaining a court order (Choice A) may be a legal option but should be considered after exhausting other conflict resolution methods. Involving security (Choice C) may escalate the situation and should only be considered if there is a risk of harm. Discussing boundaries with the client (Choice D) is important but may not immediately address the current conflict between the significant other and the husband.

4. A patient who is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic for the treatment of hypertension complains of generalized weakness. It is most appropriate for the nurse to take which action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Generalized weakness is a sign of hypokalemia, a potential side effect of potassium-wasting diuretics. By requesting a basic metabolic panel, the nurse can assess the patient's potassium levels. Facial muscle spasms are associated with hypocalcemia, not hypokalemia. Advising the patient to avoid orange juice, which is high in potassium, would be counterproductive if the patient is hypokalemic. Loose stools are typically seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

5. While changing a client's post-operative dressing, the nurse observes a red and swollen wound with a moderate amount of yellow and green drainage and a foul odor. Given there is a positive MRSA, which is the most important action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take when a client has a positive MRSA and presents with a wound showing signs of infection is to initiate contact precautions. MRSA is highly contagious and placing the patient on contact precautions helps prevent the spread of the bacteria to others in the healthcare setting. (A) Forcing oral fluids will not directly address the MRSA infection. (B) Requesting a nutrition consult is not the priority in this situation. (D) Limiting visitors to immediate family only is not necessary as MRSA precautions are primarily focused on healthcare workers and close contacts who provide direct care.

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