Nursing Elites

1. A patient with renal failure has been taking aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide suspension (Maalox) at home for indigestion. The patient arrives for outpatient hemodialysis and is unresponsive to questions and has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Which action should the dialysis nurse take first?

• A. Notify the patient’s health care provider.
• B. Obtain an order to draw a potassium level.
• C. Review the magnesium level on the patient’s chart.
• D. Teach the patient about the risk of magnesium-containing antacids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The health care provider should be notified immediately. The patient has a history and manifestations consistent with hypermagnesemia. The nurse should check the chart for a recent serum magnesium level and make sure that blood is sent to the laboratory for immediate electrolyte and chemistry determinations. Dialysis should correct the high magnesium levels. The patient needs teaching about the risks of taking magnesium-containing antacids. Monitoring of potassium levels also is important for patients with renal failure, but the patient’s current symptoms are not consistent with hyperkalemia.

2. How should the nurse interpret the following arterial blood gas results for a patient who had a tracheostomy placed after a motor vehicle crash: pH 7.48, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 25 mEq/L?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient's pH of 7.48 indicates alkalosis, and the low PaCO2 of 32 mm Hg suggests a respiratory cause. The HCO3 level is normal, ruling out metabolic causes. Therefore, the correct interpretation is respiratory alkalosis. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the pH and PaCO2 values provided.

3. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of frequent, watery stools for the last 2 days. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Obtain the baseline weight
• B. Check the patient’s blood pressure
• C. Draw blood for serum electrolyte levels
• D. Ask about any extremity numbness or tingling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the patient’s blood pressure. Given the patient's symptoms of frequent, watery stools, there is a concern for fluid volume deficit. Assessing the blood pressure helps determine the patient's perfusion status, which is crucial in managing fluid volume deficits. While obtaining baseline weight, drawing blood for serum electrolyte levels, and asking about extremity numbness or tingling are important assessments, checking the blood pressure takes precedence as it provides immediate information on the patient's circulatory status.

4. A postoperative patient who had surgery for a perforated gastric ulcer has been receiving nasogastric suction for 3 days. The patient now has a serum sodium level of 127 mEq/L (127 mmol/L). Which prescribed therapy should the nurse question?

• A. Infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr.
• B. Administer IV morphine sulfate 4 mg every 2 hours PRN.
• C. Give IV metoclopramide (Reglan) 10 mg every 6 hours PRN for nausea.
• D. Administer 3% saline if serum sodium decreases to less than 128 mEq/L.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription to infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr because the patient's gastric suction has been depleting electrolytes, leading to hyponatremia. Therefore, the IV solution should include electrolyte replacement. Solutions like lactated Ringer’s solution would usually be ordered. The other choices (B, C, and D) are appropriate for a postoperative patient with gastric suction, addressing pain management, nausea control, and correcting hyponatremia if it drops below a certain level.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient with a massive burn injury and possible hypovolemia. Which assessment data will be of most concern to the nurse?

• A. Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg.
• B. Urine output is 30 mL over the last hour.
• C. Oral fluid intake is 100 mL over the last 8 hours.
• D. There is prolonged skin tenting over the sternum.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg." A low blood pressure reading of 90/40 mm Hg indicates that the patient may be developing hypovolemic shock due to intravascular fluid loss from the burn injury. This finding is of utmost concern as it suggests systemic hypoperfusion, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D also indicate signs of dehydration and the need to increase fluid intake; however, they are not as urgent as addressing the hypotension and potential shock presented in choice A.

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