Nursing Elites

1. A patient with renal failure has been taking aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide suspension (Maalox) at home for indigestion. The patient arrives for outpatient hemodialysis and is unresponsive to questions and has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Which action should the dialysis nurse take first?

• A. Notify the patient’s health care provider.
• B. Obtain an order to draw a potassium level.
• C. Review the magnesium level on the patient’s chart.
• D. Teach the patient about the risk of magnesium-containing antacids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The health care provider should be notified immediately. The patient has a history and manifestations consistent with hypermagnesemia. The nurse should check the chart for a recent serum magnesium level and make sure that blood is sent to the laboratory for immediate electrolyte and chemistry determinations. Dialysis should correct the high magnesium levels. The patient needs teaching about the risks of taking magnesium-containing antacids. Monitoring of potassium levels also is important for patients with renal failure, but the patient’s current symptoms are not consistent with hyperkalemia.

2. A patient who is lethargic and exhibits deep, rapid respirations has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.32, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 37 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's pH is below the normal range (7.35-7.45), and the HCO3 is also below the normal range (22-26 mEq/L), indicating an acidic environment, which is consistent with metabolic acidosis. The ABGs provided do not support respiratory acidosis or alkalosis, as the PaCO2 is within the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) despite the patient's deep, rapid respirations. Therefore, the correct interpretation is metabolic acidosis.

3. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of frequent, watery stools for the last 2 days. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Obtain the baseline weight
• B. Check the patient’s blood pressure
• C. Draw blood for serum electrolyte levels
• D. Ask about any extremity numbness or tingling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the patient’s blood pressure. Given the patient's symptoms of frequent, watery stools, there is a concern for fluid volume deficit. Assessing the blood pressure helps determine the patient's perfusion status, which is crucial in managing fluid volume deficits. While obtaining baseline weight, drawing blood for serum electrolyte levels, and asking about extremity numbness or tingling are important assessments, checking the blood pressure takes precedence as it provides immediate information on the patient's circulatory status.

4. A male client with unstable angina needs a cardiac catheterization. So the healthcare provider explains the risks and benefits of the procedure and then leaves to set up for the procedure. When the nurse presents the consent form for signature, the client hesitates and asks how the wires will keep his heart going. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Answer the client's specific questions with a short, understandable explanation
• B. Postpone the procedure until the client understands the risks and benefits
• C. Call the client's next of kin and ask them to provide verbal consent
• D. Page the healthcare provider to return and provide additional explanation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to page the healthcare provider to return and provide additional explanation. It is crucial for the client to have a clear understanding of the procedure, including its risks and benefits, before signing the consent form. While the nurse can provide general information, the detailed explanation of how the procedure works and its effects should come from the healthcare provider who will perform the procedure. Postponing the procedure until the client understands is appropriate, but the immediate need is to clarify the client's concerns with the healthcare provider. Calling the client's next of kin for verbal consent is not the correct course of action as the client is present and able to provide consent after receiving adequate information.

5. A 54-year-old male client and his wife were informed this morning that he has terminal cancer. Which nursing intervention is likely to be most beneficial?

• A. Ask the wife how she would like to participate in the client's care
• B. Provide the wife with information about hospice
• C. Encourage the wife to visit after painful treatments are completed
• D. Refer the wife to a support group for family members of those dying of cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most beneficial nursing intervention in this situation is to ask the wife how she would like to participate in the client's care. Involving the spouse in the care of the terminally ill client can provide comfort, support, and a sense of contribution during a challenging time. Providing information about hospice (B) is important but may not be the immediate priority. Encouraging the wife to visit after treatments are completed (C) may delay her involvement in the care. Referring her to a support group (D) is a good idea but might be more suitable at a later stage.

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