HESI RN
Adult Health 1 HESI
1. A patient with renal failure has been taking aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide suspension (Maalox) at home for indigestion. The patient arrives for outpatient hemodialysis and is unresponsive to questions and has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Which action should the dialysis nurse take first?
- A. Notify the patient’s health care provider.
- B. Obtain an order to draw a potassium level.
- C. Review the magnesium level on the patient’s chart.
- D. Teach the patient about the risk of magnesium-containing antacids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The health care provider should be notified immediately. The patient has a history and manifestations consistent with hypermagnesemia. The nurse should check the chart for a recent serum magnesium level and make sure that blood is sent to the laboratory for immediate electrolyte and chemistry determinations. Dialysis should correct the high magnesium levels. The patient needs teaching about the risks of taking magnesium-containing antacids. Monitoring of potassium levels also is important for patients with renal failure, but the patient’s current symptoms are not consistent with hyperkalemia.
2. Which task can the registered nurse (RN) caring for a critically ill patient with multiple IV lines delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?
- A. Administer IV antibiotics through the implantable port.
- B. Monitor the IV sites for redness, swelling, or tenderness.
- C. Remove the patient’s nontunneled subclavian central venous catheter.
- D. Adjust the flow rate of the 0.9% normal saline in the peripheral IV line.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An experienced LPN/LVN can monitor IV sites for signs of infection because it falls within their education, experience, and scope of practice. Administering IV antibiotics through an implantable port, adjusting infusion rates, and removing central catheters are tasks that require RN level education and scope of practice. These activities involve a higher level of assessment, critical thinking, and potential complications that are typically within the RN's domain.
3. A nurse is assessing a newly admitted patient with chronic heart failure who forgot to take prescribed medications and seems confused. The patient complains of "just blowing up" and has peripheral edema and shortness of breath. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?
- A. Skin turgor
- B. Heart sounds
- C. Mental status
- D. Capillary refill
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increases in extracellular fluid (ECF) can lead to swelling of cells in the central nervous system, initially causing confusion, which may progress to coma or seizures. Although skin turgor, capillary refill, and heart sounds also may be affected by increases in ECF, these are signs that do not have as immediate impact on patient outcomes as cerebral edema.
4. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with severe fatigue and confusion. Laboratory studies are done. Which laboratory value will require the most immediate action by the nurse?
- A. Arterial blood pH is 7.32.
- B. Serum calcium is 18 mg/dL.
- C. Serum potassium is 5.1 mEq/L
- D. Arterial oxygen saturation is 91%.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A serum calcium level of 18 mg/dL is significantly elevated, posing a high risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. Immediate action is required to initiate cardiac monitoring and notify the healthcare provider. While the abnormalities in arterial blood pH, serum potassium, and arterial oxygen saturation also need attention, they are not as immediately life-threatening as the critically high serum calcium level. Therefore, addressing the serum calcium level takes precedence in this scenario.
5. A client who has a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is requesting information on the initial approach to a weight loss plan. Which action should the nurse recommend first?
- A. Plan low-carbohydrate and high-protein meals
- B. Engage in moderate physical activity for an hour daily
- C. Keep a record of food and drinks consumed daily
- D. Participate in a group exercise class 3 times a week
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A BMI of 30 indicates the patient is obese. The first step in a weight loss plan should be to keep a food journal to track calorie intake, which can help in meal planning and creating a workout routine. Choice (A) suggests a dietary approach, which is important but not the first step. Choice (B) recommends strenuous activity, which may not be suitable for everyone and is not the initial step. Choice (D) involves group exercise, which can be beneficial but is not the primary action to take at the beginning of a weight loss plan.
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