HESI RN
Adult Health 1 HESI
1. A patient with renal failure has been taking aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide suspension (Maalox) at home for indigestion. The patient arrives for outpatient hemodialysis and is unresponsive to questions and has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Which action should the dialysis nurse take first?
- A. Notify the patient’s health care provider.
- B. Obtain an order to draw a potassium level.
- C. Review the magnesium level on the patient’s chart.
- D. Teach the patient about the risk of magnesium-containing antacids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The health care provider should be notified immediately. The patient has a history and manifestations consistent with hypermagnesemia. The nurse should check the chart for a recent serum magnesium level and make sure that blood is sent to the laboratory for immediate electrolyte and chemistry determinations. Dialysis should correct the high magnesium levels. The patient needs teaching about the risks of taking magnesium-containing antacids. Monitoring of potassium levels also is important for patients with renal failure, but the patient’s current symptoms are not consistent with hyperkalemia.
2. A postoperative patient who had surgery for a perforated gastric ulcer has been receiving nasogastric suction for 3 days. The patient now has a serum sodium level of 127 mEq/L (127 mmol/L). Which prescribed therapy should the nurse question?
- A. Infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr.
- B. Administer IV morphine sulfate 4 mg every 2 hours PRN.
- C. Give IV metoclopramide (Reglan) 10 mg every 6 hours PRN for nausea.
- D. Administer 3% saline if serum sodium decreases to less than 128 mEq/L.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription to infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr because the patient's gastric suction has been depleting electrolytes, leading to hyponatremia. Therefore, the IV solution should include electrolyte replacement. Solutions like lactated Ringer’s solution would usually be ordered. The other choices (B, C, and D) are appropriate for a postoperative patient with gastric suction, addressing pain management, nausea control, and correcting hyponatremia if it drops below a certain level.
3. The nurse assesses a patient who has been hospitalized for 2 days. The patient has been receiving normal saline IV at 100 mL/hr, has a nasogastric tube to low suction, and is NPO. Which assessment finding would be a priority for the nurse to report to the health care provider?
- A. Oral temperature of 100.1°F
- B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L (138 mmol/L)
- C. Gradually decreasing level of consciousness (LOC)
- D. Weight gain of 2 pounds (1 kg) above the admission weight
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority assessment finding for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider is a gradually decreasing level of consciousness (LOC). This change in LOC could indicate fluid and electrolyte disturbances, which require immediate attention to prevent complications. While the other options such as an elevated temperature, serum sodium level, and weight gain are important to note and report, they do not indicate an urgent need for intervention compared to changes in LOC which could signify serious issues that need prompt evaluation and management.
4. Which task can the registered nurse (RN) caring for a critically ill patient with multiple IV lines delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?
- A. Administer IV antibiotics through the implantable port.
- B. Monitor the IV sites for redness, swelling, or tenderness.
- C. Remove the patient’s nontunneled subclavian central venous catheter.
- D. Adjust the flow rate of the 0.9% normal saline in the peripheral IV line.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An experienced LPN/LVN can monitor IV sites for signs of infection because it falls within their education, experience, and scope of practice. Administering IV antibiotics through an implantable port, adjusting infusion rates, and removing central catheters are tasks that require RN level education and scope of practice. These activities involve a higher level of assessment, critical thinking, and potential complications that are typically within the RN's domain.
5. A 54-year-old male client and his wife were informed this morning that he has terminal cancer. Which nursing intervention is likely to be most beneficial?
- A. Ask the wife how she would like to participate in the client's care
- B. Provide the wife with information about hospice
- C. Encourage the wife to visit after painful treatments are completed
- D. Refer the wife to a support group for family members of those dying of cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most beneficial nursing intervention in this situation is to ask the wife how she would like to participate in the client's care. Involving the spouse in the care of the terminally ill client can provide comfort, support, and a sense of contribution during a challenging time. Providing information about hospice (B) is important but may not be the immediate priority. Encouraging the wife to visit after treatments are completed (C) may delay her involvement in the care. Referring her to a support group (D) is a good idea but might be more suitable at a later stage.
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