Nursing Elites

1. A patient with renal failure has been taking aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide suspension (Maalox) at home for indigestion. The patient arrives for outpatient hemodialysis and is unresponsive to questions and has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Which action should the dialysis nurse take first?

• A. Notify the patient’s health care provider.
• B. Obtain an order to draw a potassium level.
• C. Review the magnesium level on the patient’s chart.
• D. Teach the patient about the risk of magnesium-containing antacids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The health care provider should be notified immediately. The patient has a history and manifestations consistent with hypermagnesemia. The nurse should check the chart for a recent serum magnesium level and make sure that blood is sent to the laboratory for immediate electrolyte and chemistry determinations. Dialysis should correct the high magnesium levels. The patient needs teaching about the risks of taking magnesium-containing antacids. Monitoring of potassium levels also is important for patients with renal failure, but the patient’s current symptoms are not consistent with hyperkalemia.

2. A patient is admitted for hypovolemia associated with multiple draining wounds. Which assessment would be the most accurate way for the nurse to evaluate fluid balance?

• A. Skin turgor
• B. Daily weight
• C. Presence of edema
• D. Hourly urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Daily weight is the most easily obtained and accurate means of assessing volume status. Skin turgor varies considerably with age and can be affected by various factors other than fluid balance. Presence of edema indicates excess fluid has moved into the interstitial space, which may not always be directly correlated with overall fluid balance. Hourly urine outputs, though important, do not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid balance as they do not consider fluid intake, insensible losses, or other sources of fluid loss.

3. A child is diagnosed with acquired aplastic anemia. The nurse knows that this child has the best prognosis with which treatment regimen?

• A. blood transfusion
• B. chemotherapy
• C. bone marrow transplantation
• D. immunosuppressive therapy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the case of acquired aplastic anemia, bone marrow transplantation offers the best chance of cure as it replaces the abnormal stem cells with healthy ones. Blood transfusion may provide temporary relief by replacing blood cells, but it does not address the root cause of the condition. Chemotherapy may be used in some cases, but it is not the preferred treatment for acquired aplastic anemia. While immunosuppressive therapy can be effective, especially in patients who are not candidates for a bone marrow transplant, it is not the first-line treatment and does not offer the same potential for a cure as bone marrow transplantation.

4. What is the first action the nurse should take when a patient complains of acute chest pain and dyspnea soon after insertion of a centrally inserted IV catheter?

• A. Notify the health care provider.
• B. Offer reassurance to the patient.
• C. Auscultate the patient’s breath sounds
• D. Give the prescribed PRN morphine sulfate IV

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a patient complains of acute chest pain and dyspnea after the insertion of a centrally inserted IV catheter is to auscultate the patient's breath sounds. This is important to assess for any potential complications such as embolism or pneumothorax, which can present with such symptoms. Auscultation can provide immediate information on the patient's respiratory status and guide further interventions. Notifying the health care provider, offering reassurance, or administering morphine should only be considered after assessing the patient's condition through auscultation.

5. A client with bladder cancer had surgical placement of a ureteroileostomy (ileal conduit) yesterday. Which postoperative assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. red and edematous stoma appearance
• B. liquid brown drainage from stoma
• C. stoma output of 40ml in the last hour
• D. mucous strings floating in the drainage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stoma output of only 40ml in the last hour may indicate a problem, such as dehydration or blockage, and should be reported immediately. A red and edematous stoma appearance could be due to inflammation, which is expected in the early postoperative period. Liquid brown drainage from the stoma is a normal finding. Mucous strings floating in the drainage are also a common occurrence postoperatively and do not typically require immediate reporting.

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