Nursing Elites

1. A patient with renal failure has been taking aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide suspension (Maalox) at home for indigestion. The patient arrives for outpatient hemodialysis and is unresponsive to questions and has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Which action should the dialysis nurse take first?

• A. Notify the patient’s health care provider.
• B. Obtain an order to draw a potassium level.
• C. Review the magnesium level on the patient’s chart.
• D. Teach the patient about the risk of magnesium-containing antacids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The health care provider should be notified immediately. The patient has a history and manifestations consistent with hypermagnesemia. The nurse should check the chart for a recent serum magnesium level and make sure that blood is sent to the laboratory for immediate electrolyte and chemistry determinations. Dialysis should correct the high magnesium levels. The patient needs teaching about the risks of taking magnesium-containing antacids. Monitoring of potassium levels also is important for patients with renal failure, but the patient’s current symptoms are not consistent with hyperkalemia.

2. What is the first action the nurse should take when a patient complains of acute chest pain and dyspnea soon after insertion of a centrally inserted IV catheter?

• A. Notify the health care provider.
• B. Offer reassurance to the patient.
• C. Auscultate the patient’s breath sounds
• D. Give the prescribed PRN morphine sulfate IV

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a patient complains of acute chest pain and dyspnea after the insertion of a centrally inserted IV catheter is to auscultate the patient's breath sounds. This is important to assess for any potential complications such as embolism or pneumothorax, which can present with such symptoms. Auscultation can provide immediate information on the patient's respiratory status and guide further interventions. Notifying the health care provider, offering reassurance, or administering morphine should only be considered after assessing the patient's condition through auscultation.

3. Before leaving the room of a confused client, the nurse notes that a half bow knot was used to attach the client's wrist restraints to the movable portion of the client's bed frame. What action should the nurse take before leaving the room?

• A. Tie the knot with a double turn or square knot
• B. Ensure that the restraints are snug against the client's wrists
• C. Ensure that the knot can be quickly released
• D. Move the ties so the restraints are secured to the side rails

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority is to ensure that the knot can be quickly released to allow for quick intervention if necessary. Tying the knot with a double turn or square knot (Choice A) may make it more difficult to release quickly in an emergency. Ensuring that the restraints are snug against the client's wrists (Choice B) may compromise circulation and cause discomfort. Moving the ties to secure the restraints to the side rails (Choice D) is not the appropriate action as it can limit the client's movement and access to care.

4. IV potassium chloride (KCl) 60 mEq is prescribed for the treatment of a patient with severe hypokalemia. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the KCl as a rapid IV bolus.
• B. Infuse the KCl at a rate of 10 mEq/hour.
• C. Only give the KCl through a central venous line.
• D. Discontinue cardiac monitoring during the infusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to infuse the KCl at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. Rapid IV infusion of KCl can lead to cardiac arrest due to its potential for causing hyperkalemia. While KCl can be administered through peripheral veins, central venous lines are not necessary unless specified. It is crucial to continue cardiac monitoring during potassium infusion to promptly identify and manage any potential dysrhythmias that may occur.

5. The father of an 11-year-old client reports to the nurse that the client has been wetting the bed since the passing of his mother and is concerned. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Reassure the father that it is normal for a pre-teen to wet the bed during times of stress
• B. Inform the father that nocturnal emissions are abnormal and his son is developmentally delayed
• C. Inform the father that it is most important to let the son know that bedwetting is normal after trauma
• D. Refer the father and the client to a psychologist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: It is common for children to experience bedwetting as a response to severe trauma, such as losing a parent. Referring the father and the client to a psychologist is crucial in this situation to help the child cope with the loss and address any underlying emotional issues. Choice A is incorrect as bedwetting in this context is likely related to the trauma rather than puberty. Choice B is incorrect as nocturnal emissions are not abnormal and do not relate to bedwetting. Choice C is incorrect because the focus should be on addressing the emotional impact of the trauma rather than specifically discussing bedwetting.

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