HESI RN
Adult Health 1 HESI
1. A patient who is lethargic and exhibits deep, rapid respirations has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.32, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 37 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The patient's pH is below the normal range (7.35-7.45), and the HCO3 is also below the normal range (22-26 mEq/L), indicating an acidic environment, which is consistent with metabolic acidosis. The ABGs provided do not support respiratory acidosis or alkalosis, as the PaCO2 is within the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) despite the patient's deep, rapid respirations. Therefore, the correct interpretation is metabolic acidosis.
2. The nurse is preparing to send a client to the cardiac catheterization lab for an angioplasty. Which client report is most important for the nurse to explore further prior to the procedure?
- A. Experiences facial swelling after eating crab
- B. Reports left chest wall pain prior to the admission
- C. Verbalizes a fear of being in a confined space
- D. Drank a glass of water
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Allergy to shellfish can indicate a potential allergy to iodine, which is used in contrast dye for the procedure. This must be explored further to prevent an allergic reaction. Choice B is not directly related to the angioplasty procedure. Choice C pertains to claustrophobia, which can be addressed but is not directly related to the safety of the procedure. Choice D is a routine activity and does not pose a risk to the client during the procedure.
3. A postoperative patient who had surgery for a perforated gastric ulcer has been receiving nasogastric suction for 3 days. The patient now has a serum sodium level of 127 mEq/L (127 mmol/L). Which prescribed therapy should the nurse question?
- A. Infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr.
- B. Administer IV morphine sulfate 4 mg every 2 hours PRN.
- C. Give IV metoclopramide (Reglan) 10 mg every 6 hours PRN for nausea.
- D. Administer 3% saline if serum sodium decreases to less than 128 mEq/L.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription to infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr because the patient's gastric suction has been depleting electrolytes, leading to hyponatremia. Therefore, the IV solution should include electrolyte replacement. Solutions like lactated Ringer’s solution would usually be ordered. The other choices (B, C, and D) are appropriate for a postoperative patient with gastric suction, addressing pain management, nausea control, and correcting hyponatremia if it drops below a certain level.
4. An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
- B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
- C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
- D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.
5. A postoperative client has three different PRN analgesics prescribed for different levels of pain. The nurse inadvertently administers a dose that is not within the prescribed parameters. What actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Assess for side effects of the medication.
- B. Document the client's responses.
- C. Complete a medication error report.
- D. Determine if the pain was relieved.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: This is a medication error, and the first step in addressing it is to assess for any side effects of the medication on the patient. Some analgesics can cause respiratory depression, so it is crucial to monitor for vital sign changes or respiratory distress. Once the patient is stable, the next steps would include contacting the provider, documenting the response, and completing a medication error report. Choices B, C, and D are not the immediate priority when dealing with a medication error. While documenting the client's responses and completing a medication error report are important, assessing for side effects and ensuring patient safety come first.
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